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505-555 Level|   Business|   Long Passage|                  
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PReciSioN
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The majority of successful senior managers do not closely 09 Aug 2024, 10:57
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GMATNinja

Tracy95
I have a concern over Q7-D. Why III is an inference?
It can be inferred from the passage that “thinking/acting cycles” (line 45) in managerial practice would be likely to result in which of the following?

I. A manager analyzes a network of problems and then acts on the basis of that analysis.
II. A manager gathers data by acting and observing the effects of action.
III. A manager takes action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

We have "Given the great uncertainty of many of the management issues that they face, senior managers often instigate a course of action simply to learn more about an issue.". I think the statement can be considered a reason why they act - "to learn more abt an issue". So we can't say (III) "A manager takes action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action.". A manager can articulate the reason, which is "to learn more abt an issue".

Could anyone shed some light on this?
I am also looking forward to the OA of this question! teal
Although the writer of this passage is able to articulate this reason (to learn more about an issue), the managers themselves might not be able to articulate that reason.

More importantly, we can trace the third inference back to paragraph three, where another implication of thinking/acting cycles is described:

Quote:
One of the implications of the intuitive style of executive management is that “thinking” is inseparable from acting. Since managers often “know” what is right before they can analyze and explain it, they frequently act first and explain later. Analysis is inextricably tied to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which managers develop thoughts about their companies and organizations not by analyzing a problematic situation and then acting, but by acting and analyzing in close concert.
  • Managers don't analyze a problem first and then act. Instead, they engage in thinking/acting cycles, in which action and analysis are intertwined -- "thinking" is inseparable from acting.
  • Managers who engage in such thinking/acting cycles will "frequently act first and explain later." Why? Because they "often 'know' what is right before they can analyze and explain it."
  • So it is reasonable to infer that intuitive managers who engage in thinking/action cycles often take action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action.

I hope that helps!
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­"A manager takes action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action"

I would definitely agree if this statement said - "A manager takes action before articulating reasons for that action" or even "A manager takes action before being able to articulate reasons for that action" (He just intutively knows what's right!)

But "without being able to articulate reasons" suggests an inability, which is simply not true as we do know from the passage that they can justify their actions.

GMATNinja KarishmaB
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The majority of successful senior managers do not closely 13 Aug 2024, 11:46
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Bhawanshu
Can anyone explain why not option A in question 5? and why not option E in Q4? Thanks in advance

Question 4


Here's choice (E):

Quote:
According to the passage, senior managers use intuition in all of the following ways EXCEPT to
(E) evaluate possible solutions to a problem
The third paragraph tells us that some managers will rely on intuition to evaluate solutions that have been reached through formal decision analysis:

    "Fourth, some managers use intuition as a check on the results of more rational analysis. Most senior executives are familiar with the formal decision analysis models and tools, and those who use such systematic methods for reaching decisions are occasionally leery of solutions suggested by these methods which run counter to their sense of the correct course of action."

We were asked which answer choice is NOT a way that senior managers use intuition, so (E) can be eliminated.

Question 5


Here's choice (A):

Quote:
The passage suggests which of the following about the “writers on management” mentioned in line 12?
(A) They have criticized managers for not following the classical rational model of decision analysis.
(A) can be eliminated because the author never indicates that these generations of writers on management have criticized managers — let alone criticized managers for not following the classical rational model.

You can check out my previous explanation of question 5 if you're still not sure how to get to the correct answer. But without more information on why you think (A) could be correct, I can't say much more about why it's not. The evidence simply isn't there.

I hope this helps!
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Hi GMATNinja KarishmaB MartyMurray
Could you please explain in question 4, how to eliminate option A. I was stuck between A and D, but eliminated A. Heres what I thought about A- Though we could infer speeding up may be an outcome, but it isnt mentioned anywhere in the passage, and this is an "According to the passage question" , so it should be mentioned in the passage somewhere per se. Where did I go wrong in this?
­
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The majority of successful senior managers do not closely 27 Aug 2024, 12:32
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Question 7


binitbisht
­For Ques 7:

"Can't articulate" and "explain later" are not different?

Can anyone explain this?
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PReciSioN

­"A manager takes action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action"

I would definitely agree if this statement said - "A manager takes action before articulating reasons for that action" or even "A manager takes action before being able to articulate reasons for that action" (He just intutively knows what's right!)

But "without being able to articulate reasons" suggests an inability, which is simply not true as we do know from the passage that they can justify their actions.

GMATNinja KarishmaB
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­The argument against statement III in question 7 seems to boil down to this: "since the managers were able to explain their actions later, they must have been capable of explaining their actions BEFORE taking those actions." Trouble is, that's not necessarily true. A manager might only develop an explanation AFTER taking action.

For example, if you are dreaming about buying a Maserati before you are able to afford a Maserati, then you are, at that moment, not able to afford a Maserati. Maybe someday you will be able to afford a Maserati -- but that doesn't change what was true before.

Similarly, if a manager takes action BEFORE being ABLE to articulate reasons, then the manager is, at that moment, not able to articulate reasons. What happens later doesn't change what was true before.­

I hope that helps a bit!
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The majority of successful senior managers do not closely 27 Sep 2024, 19:54
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Tracy95
I have a concern over Q7-D. Why III is an inference?
It can be inferred from the passage that “thinking/acting cycles” (line 45) in managerial practice would be likely to result in which of the following?

I. A manager analyzes a network of problems and then acts on the basis of that analysis.
II. A manager gathers data by acting and observing the effects of action.
III. A manager takes action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

We have "Given the great uncertainty of many of the management issues that they face, senior managers often instigate a course of action simply to learn more about an issue.". I think the statement can be considered a reason why they act - "to learn more abt an issue". So we can't say (III) "A manager takes action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action.". A manager can articulate the reason, which is "to learn more abt an issue".

Could anyone shed some light on this?
I am also looking forward to the OA of this question! teal
Although the writer of this passage is able to articulate this reason (to learn more about an issue), the managers themselves might not be able to articulate that reason.

More importantly, we can trace the third inference back to paragraph three, where another implication of thinking/acting cycles is described:

Quote:
One of the implications of the intuitive style of executive management is that “thinking” is inseparable from acting. Since managers often “know” what is right before they can analyze and explain it, they frequently act first and explain later. Analysis is inextricably tied to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which managers develop thoughts about their companies and organizations not by analyzing a problematic situation and then acting, but by acting and analyzing in close concert.
  • Managers don't analyze a problem first and then act. Instead, they engage in thinking/acting cycles, in which action and analysis are intertwined -- "thinking" is inseparable from acting.
  • Managers who engage in such thinking/acting cycles will "frequently act first and explain later." Why? Because they "often 'know' what is right before they can analyze and explain it."
  • So it is reasonable to infer that intuitive managers who engage in thinking/action cycles often take action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action.

I hope that helps!
Show more

Is it reasonable to infer that intuitive managers who engage in thinking/acting cycles often take action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action? For we are told that the managers 'frequently act first and explain later'. They may not be able to articulate while they are still acting, but how can we assume that they will not be able to articulate much later when the 'acting' is completed. Maybe they document all the articulation or reasons for all actions as part of their standard operating procedure?
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The majority of successful senior managers do not closely 07 Oct 2024, 11:47
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chiplesschap
Is it reasonable to infer that intuitive managers who engage in thinking/acting cycles often take action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action? For we are told that the managers 'frequently act first and explain later'. They may not be able to articulate while they are still acting, but how can we assume that they will not be able to articulate much later when the 'acting' is completed. Maybe they document all the articulation or reasons for all actions as part of their standard operating procedure?
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Please check out this post (the last post on the thread before yours) and let us know if you still have questions!
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The majority of successful senior managers do not closely 09 May 2025, 02:42
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In question 7, how can we infer this "A manager takes action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action."
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