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C
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Difficulty:
35%
(medium)
Question Stats:
72% (01:52) correct
28%
(02:11)
wrong
based on 376
sessions
History
Date
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Not Attempted Yet
The probability of a man hitting a bulls eye in one fire is 1/4. What is the least number of times that the man should fire in order to take the probability of hitting the bulls eye at least once to more than 50%.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 3
D. 12
E. 6
A. 5
B. 7
C. 3
D. 12
E. 6
07 Aug 2012, 09:13
Kudos
Bookmarks
SOURH7WK
The probability of a man hitting a bulls eye in one fire is 1/4. What is the least number of times that the man should fire in order to take the probability of hitting the bulls eye at least once to more than 50%.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 3
D. 12
E. 6
A. 5
B. 7
C. 3
D. 12
E. 6
It is a Typical Probability Question
IN Probability we have a rule ( which is logic actually) that
P(>1) = 1-P(0)
That is Probability of hitting the bulls eye at least once out of N trials is 1- probability of missing it all the times. & P of missing it is 3/4
That means\(1-(\frac{3}{4})^n\) > \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Solve it , n > 3 satisfies.
07 Aug 2012, 07:05
Kudos
Bookmarks
SOURH7WK
The probability of a man hitting a bulls eye in one fire is 1/4. What is the least number of times that the man should fire in order to take the probability of hitting the bulls eye at least once to more than 50%.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 3
D. 12
E. 6
OA will follow after few discussions
A. 5
B. 7
C. 3
D. 12
E. 6
OA will follow after few discussions
The probability that the man hits the bulls eye at least once in 2 tries is 1-(3/4)^2=7/16, so less than 1/2 (the probability of hitting the bulls eye at least once is 1 minus the probability of the opposite event, so the probability that the men misses in all 2 tries).
The probability that the man hits the bulls eye at least once in 3 tries is 1-(3/4)^3=37/64, so more than 1/2.
Answer: C.
P.S. You must indicate OA, rule #7: rules-for-posting-please-read-this-before-posting-133935.html
