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Hi team - is it possible to get the explanation for Q1, please? Thank you so much.
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Official Explanation

1. The passage suggests which of the following about gender as a job-irrelevant variable?

Difficulty Level: 700

Explanation

This question mentions a phrase that appears only once in the passage: gender is a "job-irrelevant variable" in line 11. The point of both studies described in the first paragraph is that they are trying to show a gender effect in cases where there should be none. That's why gender is "job-irrelevant": men and women should be equally well qualified. With an eye on the answer choices, we can see that we have ruled out (A) and (B) and narrowed down to (C) through (E). Moreover, the passage is clear that in the study, women were favored. This is presented in the passage not as a completely unassailable truth, but nevertheless as a piece of evidence, and there's no other evidence on the matter.

Therefore, the correct answer is (D).

Hope it helps

ankushahuja
Hi team - is it possible to get the explanation for Q1, please? Thank you so much.
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SajjadAhmad Pls Provide solution For Q3 ?
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Official Explanation

3. The author of the passage would be most likely to describe the explanation provided by the glass-ceiling theory for women's relative scarcity in senior management positions as

Difficulty Level: 700

Explanation

This question asks for the author's opinion on the glass-ceiling theory, and we haven't gotten a lot of opinion from the author in the passage. The author ends the passage with two possible explanations, not a decisive conclusion. The strongest statement we get from the author is that "the glass-ceiling notion... has been harder to account for in empirically proven terms." Let's look for an answer choice along those lines.

Choice (C) hits on that point: we have a problem with a lack of proof or substance. And, if that's the main problem, then presumably the theory is at least somewhat plausible.

The correct answer is (C).

Hope it helps

Alpha14
SajjadAhmad Pls Provide solution For Q3 ?
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SajjadAhmad : Are the questions from source "Gmat Free" official Gmat question, provided by Gmac?
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SajjadAhmad : Are the questions from source "Gmat Free" official Gmat question, provided by Gmac?

No, this is a private prep company.
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how is option C incorrect in q2

causality is clearly reversed ......

because of gap ........women are not opting for competition
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how is option C incorrect in q2

causality is clearly reversed ......

because of gap ........women are not opting for competition

Read the explanation in the post in the link below

https://gmatclub.com/forum/the-term-gla ... l#p2352949

Good Luck!
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may actually work to women's advantage. This is mentioned in the passage. Where it has been said that 'it was advantageous to women? There is a difference between 'may be advantageous' and 'were advantageous'. I rejected this option on this basis.

Sajjad1994
Official Explanation

1. The passage suggests which of the following about gender as a job-irrelevant variable?

Difficulty Level: 700

Explanation

This question mentions a phrase that appears only once in the passage: gender is a "job-irrelevant variable" in line 11. The point of both studies described in the first paragraph is that they are trying to show a gender effect in cases where there should be none. That's why gender is "job-irrelevant": men and women should be equally well qualified. With an eye on the answer choices, we can see that we have ruled out (A) and (B) and narrowed down to (C) through (E). Moreover, the passage is clear that in the study, women were favored. This is presented in the passage not as a completely unassailable truth, but nevertheless as a piece of evidence, and there's no other evidence on the matter.

Therefore, the correct answer is (D).

Hope it helps


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Why B is not correct? The author mentions 'its difficult to account' then why not B the answer? Also opt C says plausible... means author finds it correct to some extent but author never seems to agree with the theory

Sajjad1994
Official Explanation

3. The author of the passage would be most likely to describe the explanation provided by the glass-ceiling theory for women's relative scarcity in senior management positions as

Difficulty Level: 700

Explanation

This question asks for the author's opinion on the glass-ceiling theory, and we haven't gotten a lot of opinion from the author in the passage. The author ends the passage with two possible explanations, not a decisive conclusion. The strongest statement we get from the author is that "the glass-ceiling notion... has been harder to account for in empirically proven terms." Let's look for an answer choice along those lines.

Choice (C) hits on that point: we have a problem with a lack of proof or substance. And, if that's the main problem, then presumably the theory is at least somewhat plausible.

The correct answer is (C).

Hope it helps


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manish8242 You're right to notice the difference between "may be" and "were" - that's good critical thinking! However, in GMAT RC, we need to understand what the studies suggested, not what definitively happened.

The passage states: "empirical studies... have suggested that gender... may actually work to women's advantage"

Key insight: The studies' finding IS that gender "may actually work to women's advantage." The "may" is part of what the studies concluded, not the author hedging about whether the studies said this.

Think of it this way:
- The studies definitively suggested something
- What they suggested was that gender may favor women
- So option D correctly captures what the studies suggested
manish8242
may actually work to women's advantage. This is mentioned in the passage. Where it has been said that 'it was advantageous to women? There is a difference between 'may be advantageous' and 'were advantageous'. I rejected this option on this basis.


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manish8242
Why B is not correct? The author mentions 'its difficult to account' then why not B the answer? Also opt C says plausible... means author finds it correct to some extent but author never seems to agree with the theory


manish8242 "Difficult to account for" vs. "Difficult to articulate"

This is a crucial distinction in GMAT RC:

"Difficult to account for in empirically proven terms" means:
- Hard to prove with data/evidence
- Lacks empirical support
- Cannot be substantiated with facts

"Difficult to articulate" means:
- Hard to explain or express in words
- Complex to describe
- Challenging to communicate

The passage clearly indicates the glass-ceiling theory lacks empirical support (evidence), NOT that it's hard to explain. The theory is easy to articulate (discriminatory barriers limit women) but hard to prove with data.

Why "plausible" in option C?
"Plausible" means seemingly reasonable or possible - not that the author agrees! The theory sounds reasonable on its surface (hence plausible) but lacks evidence (poorly substantiated). This perfectly matches: "harder to account for in empirically proven terms"

Recognition Framework:
In RC, when the passage says something is "hard to account for empirically," immediately think → lacks evidence/proof → look for answers about substantiation, not articulation.

If you want, you can practice similar questions here - select Reading Comprehension under Verbal and choose Medium level questions focusing on inference and vocabulary-in-context types.
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