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GMATNinja can you please help decode this problem? It does not feel like a sub-600 one....
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Hi,

Can anyone tell whats wrong with B here.Though A is clearly winner buy cant find any point against B too.

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mykrasovski
GMATNinja can you please help decode this problem? It does not feel like a sub-600 one....
The key to this one lies in the second sentence: "Yet, in the past, people of indisputable intellectual and scientific brilliance accepted astrology as a fact." The author uses evidence about the past ("people of indisputable intellectual and scientific brilliance accepted astrology as a fact") to draw a conclusion in the present ("there is no scientific basis for rejecting astrology").

The first sentence tells us that, according to a person influenced by modern Western science, if you believe in astrology, then you have an unscientific mind. This suggests that, currently, astrology goes against modern Western science. However, in the past, there may have been limited scientific evidence or even no scientific evidence at odds with astrology.

Thus, in the past, people of "indisputable intellectual and scientific brilliance" may have had no scientific reasons for rejecting astrology. However, if those same people were alive today, they might reject astrology based on current (modern) Western science.

bawatwr
Hi,

Can anyone tell whats wrong with B here.Though A is clearly winner buy cant find any point against B too.

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(B) Since it is controversial whether astrology has a scientific basis, any argument that attempts to prove that it has will be specious.
(B) essentially says, "Because people argue about whether astrology has a scientific basis, an argument attempting to prove that astrology DOES have a scientific basis will be specious (having a false look of truth or genuineness)."

First of all, the author is not trying to PROVE that astrology has a scientific basis. Rather, the author concludes that there is no scientific basis for rejecting astrology. Because (B) makes a claim about a different argument than the one in the passage, we cannot say that it accurately identifies a vulnerability about the argument in question.

In addition, (B) frankly doesn't make much sense -- if there is controversy about an issue, does that mean that attempts to prove one particular side of that issue MUST be specious? What if strong new evidence in support of the argument emerges? What if the argument is well reasoned and logically sound?

We are looking for why the argument, as given, is vulnerable to criticism. (B) does not accomplish this -- instead, it makes an unsupported claim about a different argument. For these reasons, (B) is out.

I hope that helps!
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GMATNinja, Can you explain why Option E is not correct ?

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Curious750
GMATNinja, Can you explain why Option E is not correct ?

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The author's conclusion is that "there is no scientific basis for rejecting astrology." THIS conclusion (or the author's evidence in support of this conclusion) is what we are attempting to poke holes in as we answer the question.

Keep that in mind and look again at (E):
Quote:
(E) The fact that there might be legitimate nonscientific reasons for rejecting astrology has been overlooked.
(E) tells us that there may be other, nonscientific reasons for rejecting astrology. This does not poke holes in the author's argument at all -- it is possible that the author's reasoning and conclusion are sound even if OTHER reasons for rejecting astrology exist.

As an example, consider this argument: "Dogs are better than cats because dogs love unconditionally."

This argument overlooks the fact that dogs are also better than cats because dogs are the more adorable animal. But is the original argument vulnerable to criticism because it overlooks this unrelated fact? Not at all -- they are just two separate arguments.

Because (E) doesn't identify a reason that the author's argument is vulnerable to criticism, it is not the correct answer.

I hope that helps!
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Taking another direction, if option C stated: C) Although the conclusion is intended to hold in all cultures, the evidence advanced in its support is drawn only from those cultures strongly influenced by the past - would it have been a valid weakener too?

I am trying to understand if the argument stating "undisputed intelligence and scientific brilliance" of scientists who accepted astrology - acts as a type of "evidence".
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Curious750
GMATNinja, Can you explain why Option E is not correct ?

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The author's conclusion is that "there is no scientific basis for rejecting astrology." THIS conclusion (or the author's evidence in support of this conclusion) is what we are attempting to poke holes in as we answer the question.

Keep that in mind and look again at (E):
Quote:
(E) The fact that there might be legitimate nonscientific reasons for rejecting astrology has been overlooked.
(E) tells us that there may be other, nonscientific reasons for rejecting astrology. This does not poke holes in the author's argument at all -- it is possible that the author's reasoning and conclusion are sound even if OTHER reasons for rejecting astrology exist.

As an example, consider this argument: "Dogs are better than cats because dogs love unconditionally."

This argument overlooks the fact that dogs are also better than cats because dogs are the more adorable animal. But is the original argument vulnerable to criticism because it overlooks this unrelated fact? Not at all -- they are just two separate arguments.

Because (E) doesn't identify a reason that the author's argument is vulnerable to criticism, it is not the correct answer.

I hope that helps!
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himanshi1172
Taking another direction, if option C stated: C) Although the conclusion is intended to hold in all cultures, the evidence advanced in its support is drawn only from those cultures strongly influenced by the past - would it have been a valid weakener too?

I am trying to understand if the argument stating "undisputed intelligence and scientific brilliance" of scientists who accepted astrology - acts as a type of "evidence".
I'm not quite sure if I'm interpreting your question correctly, but it sounds like you're trying to morph choice (C) to look more like (A).

The problem is that the author is using evidence about science and scientists from the past to draw a conclusion about the current scientific basis (science and scientists of the present). That doesn't work if the scientific theories and evidence from the past are inconsistent with the present theories and evidence.

That's why (A) is correct, as explained in this post.

I hope that helps a bit!
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The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds stated in (A).
Breakdown of the Flaw
  • Premise: In the past, brilliant scientific minds accepted astrology as fact.
  • Conclusion: Therefore, there is no scientific basis for rejecting astrology today.
The argument assumes that because scientific authorities in the past did not reject astrology, modern science has no basis to do so. This overlooks the progressive nature of science: theories and evidence evolve over time. What seemed scientifically reasonable based on the knowledge and evidence available centuries ago can be firmly refuted by modern evidence and scientific frameworks.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
  • (B) commits a circular reasoning fallacy itself and assumes the outcome rather than identifying the logical gap in the author's reasoning.
  • (C) mischaracterizes the scope; the argument does not attempt to draw universal cultural claims, nor is cultural limitation the core flaw of the scientific reasoning.
  • (D) misstates the author's premise; the argument never assumes that modern Western scientists believe in astrology (in fact, the first sentence states they dismiss it).
  • (E) focuses on nonscientific reasons, whereas the author's conclusion is specifically about whether there is a scientific basis for rejecting astrology.

leo
A is the answer. It refers to timeline since "in the past, people of indisputable intellectual "

B Out of scope

C. Evidence never mentions western culture

D.Strong statement and contrary to argument

E.Out of scope.
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