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Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a

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Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a  [#permalink]

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New post Updated on: 21 Jan 2020, 06:38
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A
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Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a genuine belief in astrology is proof of a credulous and unscientific mind. Yet, in the past, people of indisputable intellectual and scientific brilliance accepted astrology as a fact. Therefore, there is no scientific basis for rejecting astrology.

The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which one of the following grounds?


(A) A belief can be consistent with the available evidence and accepted scientific theories at one time but not with the accepted evidence and theories of a later time.

(B) Since it is controversial whether astrology has a scientific basis, any argument that attempts to prove that it has will be specious.

(C) Although the conclusion is intended to hold in all cultures, the evidence advanced in its support is drawn only from those cultures strongly influenced by modern Western science.

(D) The implicit assumption that all practitioners of Western science believe in astrology is false.

(E) The fact that there might be legitimate nonscientific reasons for rejecting astrology has been overlooked.

Originally posted by WinWinMBA on 18 May 2005, 16:28.
Last edited by Bunuel on 21 Jan 2020, 06:38, edited 1 time in total.
Renamed the topic and edited the question.
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Re: Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a  [#permalink]

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New post 18 May 2005, 19:56
1
A is the answer. It refers to timeline since "in the past, people of indisputable intellectual "

B Out of scope

C. Evidence never mentions western culture

D.Strong statement and contrary to argument

E.Out of scope.
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Re: Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a  [#permalink]

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New post 19 May 2005, 06:46
A seems correct...


(B) Since it is controversial whether astrology has a scientific basis, any argument that attempts to prove that it has will be specious.
... where does the passage say anything of this sort

(C) Although the conclusion is intended to hold in all cultures, the evidence advanced in its support is drawn only from those cultures strongly influenced by modern Western science.
.... what cultures influenced by modern westenr science... it is people influenced by modern
western science


(D) The implicit assumption that all practitioners of Western science believe in astrology is false.
... contradiction



that leaves us with A and E...

A seems more relevant than E in the present context..
hence A.
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Re: Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a  [#permalink]

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New post 19 May 2005, 08:17
One of those you never care about what the other options say.
click (A), move on.
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Re: Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Oct 2016, 00:47
can someone please explain it more explicitly? I just don't understand what is A talking about.
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Re: Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Oct 2016, 02:07
Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a genuine belief in astrology is proof of a credulous and unscientific mind. Yet, in the past, people of indisputable intellectual and scientific brilliance accepted astrology as a fact. Therefore, there is no scientific basis for rejecting astrology.

The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which one of the following grounds?

(A) A belief can be consistent with the available evidence and accepted scientific theories at one time but not with the accepted evidence and theories of a later time.

Option A captures the flaw nicely. It might be possible that in the past, indisputable intellectual and scientific brilliance accepted *astrology as a fact* because there were reasonable evidence and scientific theories to prove it at the point in time. However, "astrology as a fact* might not be accepted with the theories available at a later time.
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Re: Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Oct 2016, 03:28
Keats wrote:
Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a genuine belief in astrology is proof of a credulous and unscientific mind. Yet, in the past, people of indisputable intellectual and scientific brilliance accepted astrology as a fact. Therefore, there is no scientific basis for rejecting astrology.

The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which one of the following grounds?

(A) A belief can be consistent with the available evidence and accepted scientific theories at one time but not with the accepted evidence and theories of a later time.

Option A captures the flaw nicely. It might be possible that in the past, indisputable intellectual and scientific brilliance accepted *astrology as a fact* because there were reasonable evidence and scientific theories to prove it at the point in time. However, "astrology as a fact* might not be accepted with the theories available at a later time.

so why in time there were evidence and at a later time there's no evidence to support astrology as a fact? what part of the stimuli is vulnerable, premise or conclusion?
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Re: Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a  [#permalink]

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New post 11 Jun 2019, 06:23
GMATNinja can you please help decode this problem? It does not feel like a sub-600 one....
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Re: Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a  [#permalink]

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New post 12 Jun 2019, 09:04
Hi,

Can anyone tell whats wrong with B here.Though A is clearly winner buy cant find any point against B too.

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Re: Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a  [#permalink]

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New post 19 Jun 2019, 09:28
mykrasovski wrote:
GMATNinja can you please help decode this problem? It does not feel like a sub-600 one....

The key to this one lies in the second sentence: "Yet, in the past, people of indisputable intellectual and scientific brilliance accepted astrology as a fact." The author uses evidence about the past ("people of indisputable intellectual and scientific brilliance accepted astrology as a fact") to draw a conclusion in the present ("there is no scientific basis for rejecting astrology").

The first sentence tells us that, according to a person influenced by modern Western science, if you believe in astrology, then you have an unscientific mind. This suggests that, currently, astrology goes against modern Western science. However, in the past, there may have been limited scientific evidence or even no scientific evidence at odds with astrology.

Thus, in the past, people of "indisputable intellectual and scientific brilliance" may have had no scientific reasons for rejecting astrology. However, if those same people were alive today, they might reject astrology based on current (modern) Western science.

bawatwr wrote:
Hi,

Can anyone tell whats wrong with B here.Though A is clearly winner buy cant find any point against B too.

Posted from my mobile device

Quote:
(B) Since it is controversial whether astrology has a scientific basis, any argument that attempts to prove that it has will be specious.

(B) essentially says, "Because people argue about whether astrology has a scientific basis, an argument attempting to prove that astrology DOES have a scientific basis will be specious (having a false look of truth or genuineness)."

First of all, the author is not trying to PROVE that astrology has a scientific basis. Rather, the author concludes that there is no scientific basis for rejecting astrology. Because (B) makes a claim about a different argument than the one in the passage, we cannot say that it accurately identifies a vulnerability about the argument in question.

In addition, (B) frankly doesn't make much sense -- if there is controversy about an issue, does that mean that attempts to prove one particular side of that issue MUST be specious? What if strong new evidence in support of the argument emerges? What if the argument is well reasoned and logically sound?

We are looking for why the argument, as given, is vulnerable to criticism. (B) does not accomplish this -- instead, it makes an unsupported claim about a different argument. For these reasons, (B) is out.

I hope that helps!
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Re: Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a  [#permalink]

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New post 03 Aug 2019, 11:51
GMATNinja, Can you explain why Option E is not correct ?

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Re: Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a  [#permalink]

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New post 10 Aug 2019, 09:43
Curious750 wrote:
GMATNinja, Can you explain why Option E is not correct ?

Posted from my mobile device

The author's conclusion is that "there is no scientific basis for rejecting astrology." THIS conclusion (or the author's evidence in support of this conclusion) is what we are attempting to poke holes in as we answer the question.

Keep that in mind and look again at (E):
Quote:
(E) The fact that there might be legitimate nonscientific reasons for rejecting astrology has been overlooked.

(E) tells us that there may be other, nonscientific reasons for rejecting astrology. This does not poke holes in the author's argument at all -- it is possible that the author's reasoning and conclusion are sound even if OTHER reasons for rejecting astrology exist.

As an example, consider this argument: "Dogs are better than cats because dogs love unconditionally."

This argument overlooks the fact that dogs are also better than cats because dogs are the more adorable animal. But is the original argument vulnerable to criticism because it overlooks this unrelated fact? Not at all -- they are just two separate arguments.

Because (E) doesn't identify a reason that the author's argument is vulnerable to criticism, it is not the correct answer.

I hope that helps!
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Re: Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a   [#permalink] 10 Aug 2019, 09:43

Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a

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