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skycastle19
Hi EMPOWERgmatVerbal,

Could you please help explain the difference in meaning between (B) and (E)? I still did not see the difference in meaning between the two sentences below:

(B) There is no single yardstick by which all distances can be measured.
(E) By no single yardstick can all distances be measured.

Thank you!

Thanks for asking skycastle19!

After mulling it over, we think that HowdyPartner had the best explanation that's a bit different from our own:

B is stating that "there is no single yardstick to measure all distances (currently)" whereas E is saying that, definitively, "there will NEVER be a single yardstick that can measure all distances". E's construction is not the intended meaning -- the fact that there currently is not a single yardstick to measure all distances is the reason the problem is so hard -- is the intended meaning of the sentence.

We hope this helps! This is a tricky one, for sure!

EMPOWERgmatVerbal Thank you for your clarification! It helps a lot!
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lindseym
Dear All,

What im now confused about is the meaning of "Lack". i thought at the first place that the meaning of sentence is with regard to insufficiency rather than non-existent. I also realized that I can find two meanings from the Dictionary "there is not enough of it or it does not exist at all"

How is "a lack of a single yardstick" interchangeable with "no single yardstick"?

Posted from my mobile device

I had the exact same issue. GMAT SC puts an emphasis on delivering the correct meaning, and it seems to me that "lack" and "no single" have different meanings. Anyone can address this issue?
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i don't understand the explaination... won't there be an meaning error if we replace lack of yardstick with no yardstick ? i was in the impression that u can't change meaning from original sentence? please can anybody explain me that ?
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khera
i don't understand the explaination... won't there be an meaning error if we replace lack of yardstick with no yardstick ? i was in the impression that u can't change meaning from original sentence? please can anybody explain me that ?

Hello khera,

We hope this finds you well.

To answer your query, here, "there is a lack of a single yardstick" and "there is no single yardstick" convey the same meaning; the first is indirect, referring to the existence of the yardstick's absence, and the second is direct, simply stating that the yardstick is absent.

We hope this helps.
All the best!
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From what I see, it looks like Empowergmatverbal is no longer active.

I have a follow up question to the point this expert made on ending a clause with a preposition.

To clarify, "Because there is a lack of a single yardstick to measure all distances by" is a clause, correct? And you cannot end this clause with "by", correct?

Thank you in advance.
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EMPOWERgmatVerbal
Hello Everyone!

Let’s tackle this question, one problem at a time, to narrow it down to the right answer!

After a quick scan of each answer, there are a few major differences between each answer. Let's tackle them one at a time, and we will come to the correct answer quickly!

You may already be familiar with the rule that you shouldn't end questions with a preposition. Did you know that also applies to other sentences and clauses too? Take a closer look at each answer, and find any sentences or clauses that end with a preposition:

(A) To estimate the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem because there is a lack of a single yardstick that all distances can be measured by. --> WRONG
(B) Estimating the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem because there is no single yardstick by which all distances can be measured. -> OK
(C) Because there is a lack of a single yardstick to measure all distances by, estimating the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem. --> WRONG
(D) A notoriously difficult problem is to estimate the expansion rate of the universe because a single yardstick is lacking by which all distances can be measured. --> OK
(E) It is a notoriously difficult problem to estimate the expansion rate of the universe because by no single yardstick can all distances be measured. --> OK

There you go - we can bump off answers A and C because they both have clauses that end in prepositions, which is a major no-no in English!

Now that we're left with B, D, and E, let's take a closer look at intended meaning. Focus on finding the most clear and concise answer possible:

(B) Estimating the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem because there is no single yardstick by which all distances can be measured.

This is CORRECT! Everything is clear and concise. The structure of the sentence is clear (X is a problem because Y), and each phrase is cut down to only the most important words to convey meaning.

(D) A notoriously difficult problem is to estimate the expansion rate of the universe because a single yardstick is lacking by which all distances can be measured.

This is INCORRECT because it's overly wordy and potentially confusing to readers. By saying "A problem is X because Y" puts the focus on the word "problem," and not the actual problem at hand. Also, the phrase "a single yardstick is lacking" sounds awkward, and might lead readers to think there IS a yardstick to measure distance, but that it's flawed in some way. Saying "there is no single yardstick" would be clearer and more concise for readers.

(E) It is a notoriously difficult problem to estimate the expansion rate of the universe because by no single yardstick can all distances be measured.

This is INCORRECT because the phrase "by no single yardstick" changes the meaning! Instead of meaning there is no one method to measure distance that exists, this means that all distance cannot be measured by one literal yardstick alone. Of course all distance cannot be measured by one little yardstick - who is going to take it deep into space and use it? ;-) That's not the intended meaning at all, so this is wrong. It also uses the structure "It is a problem to X because Y," which changes the focus from the actual problem (estimating the expansion rate of the universe) to some mysterious "It." There is no need for this extra "it" to be here - just tell us what the problem is and get on with it!

Don’t study for the GMAT. Train for it.

MartyTargetTestPrep,
I am a bit confused as to why you cannot end a clause with a preposition. In particular, I thought this clause for Choice C "Because there is a lack of a single yardstick to measure all distances by" was okay.

I would also be so appreciative if you can further clarify the difference between a clause and sentence. From my understanding, a clause does not have an object, but a sentence does. Both clauses and sentences have a subject and a verb though. Is this correct?

Last question, is "by which" a noun modifier? Does it need to be close to the noun? What is the difference between "by which" and "in which"?

Thank you for your time and help in advance.
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To clarify, "Because there is a lack of a single yardstick to measure all distances by" is a clause, correct? And you cannot end this clause with "by", correct?
Yes, "Because there is a lack of a single yardstick to measure all distances by" is a clause.
The subject of the clause is "lack of a single ... distances by", and the verb is "is".

Can you end a clause with a preposition?
Many people feel you should not, and the correct answers in SC usually do not. So treat this as a GMAT preference.

However, this is not a rigid rule that everyone agrees with. (This last sentence ended with a preposition. The alternative would be "This is not a rule with which everyone agrees.")

It is believed that Winston Churchill was one of the people who did not agree with the rule. The story goes that an editor once reworded one of Churchill's sentences so that it did not end with a preposition. Churchill replied with a note saying, “This is the sort of bloody nonsense up with which I will not put.”

PS: This is a famous story, but nobody is certain whether it is true. And there are many different versions of the story and of Churchill's reply.

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woohoo921
A clause is a group of words with a subject and a verb.
There are two types of clauses, independent and dependent. An independent clause can be a sentence. A dependent clause can be a part of a sentence, but it cannot be a sentence on its own.

Example of independent clause: The weather is good
Example of dependent clause: Because the weather is good

A sentence can contain multiple clauses. Every sentence must contain at least one independent clause.

You can read more about clauses on the Purdue OWL site.
https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/general_writ ... index.html

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EMPOWERgmatVerbal
You may already be familiar with the rule that you shouldn't end questions with a preposition. Did you know that also applies to other sentences and clauses too? Take a closer look at each answer, and find any sentences or clauses that end with a preposition:

(A) To estimate the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem because there is a lack of a single yardstick that all distances can be measured by. --> WRONG
(B) Estimating the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem because there is no single yardstick by which all distances can be measured. -> OK
(C) Because there is a lack of a single yardstick to measure all distances by, estimating the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem. --> WRONG

There you go - we can bump off answers A and C because they both have clauses that end in prepositions, which is a major no-no in English!

MartyTargetTestPrep,
I am a bit confused as to why you cannot end a clause with a preposition. In particular, I thought this clause for Choice C "Because there is a lack of a single yardstick to measure all distances by" was okay.
It's not always incorrect to end a clause with a preposition.

Here's an example that contains a clause that works well with a preposition at the end.

The band played some ballads rather well even though what the band is known for is faster, more raucous music.

So, choices (A) and (C) in this question are not incorrect simply because they contain clauses that end in prepositions. Rather, they are incorrect because, as a result of ending with prepositions, they are quite awkward, and even more importantly, (A) and (C) don't effectively convey logical meanings.

Notice that "there is a lack of a single yardstick" means that there isn't even one single yardstick. So, the meanings of (A) and (C) are off because it's nonsensical to say that there are no yardsticks at all.

Meanwhile "there is a lack of a single yardstick to measure all distances by," in (C) isn't quite logical. Notice that, if we move the wording around, we see that it suggests that people would measure distances "by a yardstick," as in "John hoped to measure all distances by a yardstick." This wording is off. In this context, need to say "by means of a yardstick" or "by using a yardstick," or "there is no single yardstick to measure all distances by means of which."

So, the fact that a preposition appears at the end of a clause isn't all that makes (A) and (C) incorrect.

Quote:
I would also be so appreciative if you can further clarify the difference between a clause and sentence. From my understanding, a clause does not have an object, but a sentence does. Both clauses and sentences have a subject and a verb though. Is this correct?
The wording of a clause and a sentence can be the same if the clause is an independent clause. So, the only reason a sentence is a sentence rather than an independent clause is that someone decided that it's a sentence and punctuated it as a sentence.

Quote:
Last question, is "by which" a noun modifier? Does it need to be close to the noun? What is the difference between "by which" and "in which"?
A structure beginning with "by which" is a noun modifier that works similarly to one that begins with "in which." The difference between them is that they convey different meanings because "by" and "in" have different meanings. At the same time, "by which ..." and "in which ..." work similarly.

So, yes, "by which ..." must be close to the noun or noun phrase that it modifies.
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ExpertsGlobal5
Dear Friends,

Here is a detailed explanation to this question-
Bunuel
To estimate the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem because there is a lack of a single yardstick that all distances can be measured by.

(A) To estimate the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem because there is a lack of a single yardstick that all distances can be measured by.

(B) Estimating the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem because there is no single yardstick by which all distances can be measured.

(C) Because there is a lack of a single yardstick to measure all distances by, estimating the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem.

(D) A notoriously difficult problem is to estimate the expansion rate of the universe because a single yardstick is lacking by which all distances can be measured.

(E) It is a notoriously difficult problem to estimate the expansion rate of the universe because by no single yardstick can all distances be measured.

NEW question from GMAT® Official Guide 2019


(SC01554)

https://www.nytimes.com/1996/03/05/science/age-of-universe-is-now-settled-astronomer-says.html

Estimating the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem because of the lack of a single yardstick by which all distances can be measured.

Meaning is crucial to solving this problem:
Understanding the intended meaning is key to solving this question; the intended meaning of this sentence is that estimating the expansion rate of the universe is a notoriously difficult problem because no single yardstick by which all distances can be measured exists.

Concepts tested here: Idioms + Awkwardness/Redundancy

• Prepositions cannot be used to end a sentence on the GMAT.

A: This answer choice incorrectly and unidiomatically ends the sentence with a preposition ("by" in this case); remember, prepositions cannot be used to end a sentence on the GMAT. Further, Option A uses the passive and needlessly indirect constructions "there is a lack of a single yardstick that all distances can be measured by" and "To estimate", leading to awkwardness and redundancy.

B: Correct. This answer choice uses the clause "there is no single yardstick", conveying the intended meaning - that no single yardstick by which all distances can be measured exists at all. Further, Option B avoids the idiom error seen in Option A, as it does not end the sentence with a preposition. Additionally, Option B is free of awkwardness or redundancy.

C: This answer choice uses the needlessly wordy and indirect construction "there is a lack of a single yardstick to measure all distances by", leading to awkwardness and redundancy.

D: This answer choice alters the meaning of the sentence through the clause "a single yardstick is lacking by which all distances can be measured"; the construction of this clause incorrectly implies there is a single yardstick by which all distances can be measured, but it is lacking in some way; the intended meaning is that no single yardstick by which all distances can be measured exists at all. Further, Option D uses the passive and needlessly indirect constructions "a single yardstick is lacking by which all distances can be measured" and "to estimate", leading to awkwardness and redundancy.

E: This answer choice uses the passive and needlessly indirect constructions "It is a notoriously difficult problem to estimate" and "by no single yardstick can all distances be measured", leading to awkwardness and redundancy.

Hence, B is the best answer choice.

All the best!
Experts' Global Team

ExpertsGlobal5

Thank you for your help reply. I was caught off guard by the "by which" because I am used to the idiom "in which". When you "by which" be preferable to "in which" or are the two interchangeable? Thanks again.

egmat

gently checking in to see if you have thoughts here, thank you!
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Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

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