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Because the equation does not state that X and Y must be different numbers, why could you not just put in X=3, Y=3 and allow the equation to cancel down to zero?
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tbmiers
Because the equation does not state that X and Y must be different numbers, why could you not just put in X=3, Y=3 andallow the equation to cancel down to zero?

x and y are some specific numbers and the questions asks whether xy/(x+y)>1. You cannot arbitrarily say that x=y=3 and proceed. Also, it's not clear what you mean by the highlighted part above.
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first simplify the question stem,then plug some values as per the statements.we can see that correct answer is option B
Simplified q (xy)/(x+y) > 1
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Hello - can someone give a more detailed step-by-step on the xy/x+y > 1 part?

I'm getting: (X^2 - Y^2)/(X-Y) => (X+Y)(X-Y)/(X-Y) => X+Y

Thanks!
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mdacosta
Hello - can someone give a more detailed step-by-step on the xy/x+y > 1 part?

I'm getting: (X^2 - Y^2)/(X-Y) => (X+Y)(X-Y)/(X-Y) => X+Y

Thanks!

Hi,
\(x^{-2} - y^{-2} = \frac{1}{x^2}-\frac{1}{y^2} = \frac{y^2-x^2}{(xy)^2}\)...
and \(x^{-1}-y^{-1} = \frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{y} = \frac{y-x}{xy}\)
SO \(\frac{x^{-1}-y^{-1}}{x^{-2}-y^{-2}}>1\) will be \(\frac{y-x}{xy}/\frac{y^2-x^2}{(xy)^2}=\frac{y-x}{xy} * \frac{(xy)^2}{y^2-x^2}\).............
\(\frac{y-x}{xy} * \frac{(xy)^2}{y^2-x^2} = \frac{xy}{x+y}\).............
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tbmiers
Because the equation does not state that X and Y must be different numbers, why could you not just put in X=3, Y=3 andallow the equation to cancel down to zero?

x and y are some specific numbers and the questions asks whether xy/(x+y)>1. You cannot arbitrarily say that x=y=3 and proceed. Also, it's not clear what you mean by the highlighted part above.


I think what tbmiers meant was, why could X and Y not be the same number, cancel each other out and the equation become 0/0=undefined?
Statement 1 proves that this is not the case - but the question got me thinking.

Is my logic incorrect that by simplifying the quadratic equation we are removing a possible answer?
And following that logic the answer is actually (C) - we need Stmt 1 to know that X≠Y
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tbmiers
Because the equation does not state that X and Y must be different numbers, why could you not just put in X=3, Y=3 andallow the equation to cancel down to zero?

x and y are some specific numbers and the questions asks whether xy/(x+y)>1. You cannot arbitrarily say that x=y=3 and proceed. Also, it's not clear what you mean by the highlighted part above.


I think what tbmiers meant was, why could X and Y not be the same number, cancel each other out and the equation become 0/0=undefined?
Statement 1 proves that this is not the case - but the question got me thinking.

Is my logic incorrect that by simplifying the quadratic equation we are removing a possible answer?
And following that logic the answer is actually (C) - we need Stmt 1 to know that X≠Y

Hi,
you have made an observation which may be valid in some scenario, but is not the case here..
x=y does not give you infinity or 0/0... you have to cancel out the common terms in both numerator and denominator and then only should look at the denominator..

another example
if the equation is \(\frac{x^2-y^2}{x-y}\) , we do not require to mention x should not be equal to y, because you have a term in numerator that will cancel out x-y
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Quote:

you have made an observation which may be valid in some scenario, but is not the case here..

Thanks chetan2u for clearing that up.

Can you perhaps give an example of where my logic would indeed be valid?
(sorry if this goes off topic)
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etienneg
Quote:

you have made an observation which may be valid in some scenario, but is not the case here..

Thanks chetan2u for clearing that up.

Can you perhaps give an example of where my logic would indeed be valid?
(sorry if this goes off topic)

Hi,
its perfectly fine to clear doubts..

If we have a equation where we are left in the end with a term in the denominator, it will be important to mention the same..

example..
\(\frac{x+y}{x}\), here\(x\neq{0}\)...
OR\(\frac{x^2+y^2}{x-y}\) , here\(x\neq{y}\)...
OR \(\frac{x^2+y^2-2xy}{x^2-y^2}\), here\(x\neq{-y}\)...
WHY?
\(\frac{x^2+y^2-2xy}{x^2-y^2} = \frac{(x-y)^2}{(x-y)(x+y)} =\frac{x-y}{x+y}\)
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If we modify the original condition and the question, we can write the question as, Is (x^-1-y^-1)/(x^-2-y^-2)>1? --> (1/x-1/y)/(1/x^2-1/y^2)>1?. If we multiply the left side with (xy)^2 to the numerator and to the denominator, we get xy(y-x)/(y^2-x^2)>1?. If we modify again, the question becomes xy(y-x)/(y+x)(y-x)>1?. If x and y are the same number, the denominator becomes 0, which is not possible. Hence, we need to divide each side and get xy/(y+x)>1?. If x+y>0, we get xy>x+y?, xy-x-y>0?, xy-x-y+1>1?, (x-1)(y-1)>1?. And, we have x>2 and y>2. The answer is always yes and the condition is sufficient. Hence, the correct answer is B.

- Once we modify the original condition and the question according to the variable approach method 1, we can solve approximately 30% of DS questions.
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