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Hi chetan2u
Statement 1 gives loss percentage when discount is given by seller, question asks about loss percentage in general without a discount. Could you please elaborate why statement 1 is sufficient without solving?

TIA!
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Vinit800HBS
neha283

Let me elaborate by a bit of calculation and then will give you he logical answer to it.

Let’s assume that the shopkeeper SELLS the 10kg rice at “x” which accounts for the loss also.
Let the actual cost of the rice is “y”.

Thus, “x” is the price which factors in the loss that the shopkeeper will incur and “y” is the price without any fault.

Now, if shopkeeper gives a further 10% discount on already loss making price “x”, he makes a 55% loss overall. So, shopkeeper sells the rice at 45% of its value “y”.

So,
0.9*x = 0.45*y
X = 0.5*y

Thus, X is 50% of actual cost.
So, loss would be 50% of the actual cost.
Thus, Statement 1 alone is sufficient.

Statement 2 provides not enough information about selling price or how much less does the weighing machine weigh. So, statement 2 is not sufficient.

Hence, A is our answer.

LOGICAL APPROACH:
If a further 10% discount would have not been given, rice is still sold at a loss which is less that 55%. Basically, 10% discount is further aggravating the loss quantum by a certain % age which can be found out by forming mathematical expression.
But, as the machine is weighing “a%” less, a loss of “a%” is already incurred and the loss is further aggravated by a 10% discount which will take the loss quantum to “1.1*a%”.

Hope this clarifies your doubt.

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Posted from my mobile device

Hi Vinit800HBS,

Loss = buying price for seller - selling price of seller

Here you are taking y = selling price of seller without default --> it should be 55% of "buying price for seller"

0.9*x = 0.45*y is incorre.

Correct me if I am wrong. :)
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Vinit800HBS


Let me elaborate by a bit of calculation and then will give you he logical answer to it.

Let’s assume that the shopkeeper SELLS the 10kg rice at “x” which accounts for the loss also.
Let the actual cost of the rice is “y”.

Thus, “x” is the price which factors in the loss that the shopkeeper will incur and “y” is the price without any fault.

Now, if shopkeeper gives a further 10% discount on already loss making price “x”, he makes a 55% loss overall. So, shopkeeper sells the rice at 45% of its value “y”.

So,
0.9*x = 0.45*y
X = 0.5*y

Thus, X is 50% of actual cost.
So, loss would be 50% of the actual cost.
Thus, Statement 1 alone is sufficient.

Statement 2 provides not enough information about selling price or how much less does the weighing machine weigh. So, statement 2 is not sufficient.

Hence, A is our answer.

LOGICAL APPROACH:
If a further 10% discount would have not been given, rice is still sold at a loss which is less that 55%. Basically, 10% discount is further aggravating the loss quantum by a certain % age which can be found out by forming mathematical expression.
But, as the machine is weighing “a%” less, a loss of “a%” is already incurred and the loss is further aggravated by a 10% discount which will take the loss quantum to “1.1*a%”.

Hope this clarifies your doubt.

Support with your kudos for further such explanations.

Cheers. May the 800 be with you!

Posted from my mobile device

In the 2nd Statement, I can calculate the the loss percentage in the form as an expression of a.

Cost without fault = 5 *10 = $50
Cost With Fault = 5* (10 - 10*a%)

Loss = 50 - 5*(10-10*a%) = 50 - 50 + 50*a% = 50a%

Since a is the given value (a constant) in the question, this should be the valid answer.

This way answer should be D.
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This question seems v difficult from gmat standards
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