neha283Let me elaborate by a bit of calculation and then will give you he logical answer to it.
Let’s assume that the shopkeeper SELLS the 10kg rice at “x” which accounts for the loss also.
Let the actual cost of the rice is “y”.
Thus, “x” is the price which factors in the loss that the shopkeeper will incur and “y” is the price without any fault.
Now, if shopkeeper gives a further 10% discount on already loss making price “x”, he makes a 55% loss overall. So, shopkeeper sells the rice at 45% of its value “y”.
So,
0.9*x = 0.45*y
X = 0.5*y
Thus, X is 50% of actual cost.
So, loss would be 50% of the actual cost.
Thus, Statement 1 alone is sufficient.
Statement 2 provides not enough information about selling price or how much less does the weighing machine weigh. So, statement 2 is not sufficient.
Hence, A is our answer.
LOGICAL APPROACH:
If a further 10% discount would have not been given, rice is still sold at a loss which is less that 55%. Basically, 10% discount is further aggravating the loss quantum by a certain % age which can be found out by forming mathematical expression.
But, as the machine is weighing “a%” less, a loss of “a%” is already incurred and the loss is further aggravated by a 10% discount which will take the loss quantum to “1.1*a%”.
Hope this clarifies your doubt.
Cheers. May the 800 be with you!
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