How can we compare the obesity as a % of the total population between men and women unless we are told that the total men and total women are 50:50 in that country?
For ex., in the 1st question, say Lebanese women constitute only 40% of the total population, then (38.3 out of 40) 96% of Lebanese women are obese. Now the data can't suggest that men and women share similar exercise habits, right?
In the same sense, none of the given statements can suggest anything about the data unless we assume that the gender ratio of the total population is 50:50.
Please explain.
Thanks in advance!
Bismuth83
1. The question asks us to
figure out whether the following statements can be explained using the data.
2.
Men and women in Lebanon are more likely to share similar exercise habits than are men and women in the United States. In Lebanon, the absolute difference is |36.3% - 38.3%| = |-2%| = 2%. In the US, the absolute difference is |27.7% - 34.0%| = 6.3%. Since 2% < 6.3%, men and women in Lebanon have similar obesity rates and therefore could support them having similar exercise habits.
So, this statement would be explained by the data.3.
Women in Ireland are more careful with their diet than are their male counterparts. The obesity rate for men in Ireland is 20.1%, while women are not on the list. The lists are ranking the highest obesity rates, which means women in Ireland have an obesity rate less than 18%. Since that value is definitely less than 20.1%, women have a lower obesity rate and therefore could support them being more careful with their diet.
So, this statement would be explained by the data.
4.
Men in Germany take less of an interest in fitness than do women in Germany. The obesity rates for men and women in Germany are 22.5% and 23.3%, respectively. Since 22.5% < 23.3%, men have a lower obesity rate and therefore could counter the idea that they have less of an interest in fitness.
So, this statement would not be explained by the data.