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carcass,

I perfectly understand why option e is correct but i am curious about one thing,

if the option E was worded as:
" the board of directors raised at its quarterly meeting the possibility of adding worker incentives",
would it mean the same thing as the original option e? Does this change in placement of prepositional phrase bring any change?
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sagarltl
carcass,

I perfectly understand why option e is correct but i am curious about one thing,

if the option E was worded as:
" the board of directors raised at its quarterly meeting the possibility of adding worker incentives",
would it mean the same thing as the original option e? Does this change in placement of prepositional phrase bring any change?

Hi,
No it would not mean the same thing..
in its present shape without any commas separating the phrases, it illogically conveys that the board of directors that was raised at its quarterly meeting...
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Chetan hits the nail on the haed

the board of directors = subject

raised= verb

at its quarterly meeting = from someone else at the meeting

and this does not any sense. at all

This is a really good question from the meaning standing point. GMAC questions can be eliminated almost in their entirely thanks meaning. For instance, I never memorized idioms, just a few, the most important.

That's is the key for SC.

Regards
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Can we can conclude that the prepositional phrase " at its quarterly meeting" acts as a noun modifier and states where the subject raised the issue and it would be correct even if the modifier was not placed within the comma. And in the instance i gave, the phrase acts as a verb modifier and means where the board of directors was raised which make no sense.
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The incidental phrase is there to give you more information than you need. If it is avoided the meaning is unchanged in its intent.

Hope this helps

regards
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Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

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