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Silly mistake- but fixed it- you have to multiply 1 by 1 to get the area of one fourth of the square and then subtract it by the area of the remaining portion of the circle inside it; though, you can just find the area of the circle and divide it by 4. Thus,

1 x 1= 1
pi (1)^2= pi (1) / 4

1- pi(1)/4
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Side of square = diameter of circle = 2 x radius\therefore radius = diameter/2 = 1

Area of shaded region = area of square - area of circle = 2 x2 - pi*1*1 = 4 -pi

Since there are 4 equal parts of the shaded region, area of one shaded region = (4 -pi)/4 = 1 - pi/4

Option E

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Can someone please explain to me why the area of the circle isnt pi*radius^2? Why is it just pi?
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teamryan15
Can someone please explain to me why the area of the circle isnt pi*radius^2? Why is it just pi?


The area is \(pi*r^2\) itself but the length of square is 2, which is equal to diameter. Hence radius is 2/2=1
So r^2=1^2=1..
What is left is pi*r^2=pi*1^2=pi
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Attachment:
1.png

There is a circle inscribed in a square, shown on the above figure. If the length of the square is 2, what is the area of one of the 4 regions shaded?

A. \(1-π\)
B. \(2-π\)
C. \(4-π\)
D. \(1-(\frac{π}{2})\)
E. \(1-(\frac{π}{4})\)

Square Area= 4

Diameter= 2, Radius= 1
Area of circle= PI.

Now Total shaded region= 4-PI

1/4 th of shaded region= (1/4) (4_PI) E
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