We will need unique values of p and q to be able to find the value of p-q.
From statement I alone, 16\(p^2\) = 64 + 16\(q^2\). Taking 16\(q^2\) to the LHS, we have,
16 (\(p^2\) – \(q^2\)) = 64 or \(p^2\) – \(q^2\) = 4.
\(p^2\) – \(q^2\) can be simplified as (p-q)*(p+q). Therefore, (p-q)*(p+q) = 4. We cannot find a unique value of (p-q) from this equation. Statement I alone is insufficient.
Answer options A and D can be eliminated. Possible answer options are B, C or E.
From statement II alone, \(p^2\) = 36. This means p = ± 6. But, we do not have a value for q and hence cannot find a value for p-q.
Statement II alone is insufficient. Answer option B can be eliminated. Possible answer options are C or E.
Combining both statements I and II, we have the following:
\(p^2\) – \(q^2\) = 4 from statement I and \(p^2\) = 36 from statement II. Therefore, \(q^2\) = 32 which means q = ±4√2 and p = ± 6.
We cannot find a unique value of (p-q) even after combining both the statements together.
The correct answer option , IMO , is E.
Hope that helps!