eswarchethu135
What is the value of x?
1) \(x^x = 1\)
2) \(x^a = 1\) where a > 0
chetan2u ´s argument for the insufficiency of statement (2) is perfect.
The SUFFICIENCY of statement (1) is proved below, although I must say the arguments are OUT of GMAT´s scope (in terms of abstraction, so to speak).
Important: 0^0 is not equal to 1, it´s an undefined mathematical expression. (If you prefer, it does not exist, from the fact that it cannot be defined properly.)
The reason people believe it is equal to 1 is related to the fact that in SOME cases it is convenient to use 0^0=1 as a CONVENTION.
(The best example I know is when dealing with multi-indexes, in the context of Partial Differential Equations, for instance.)
All that put, let´s see the reason why (1) is SUFFICIENT and, therefore, the correct answer is (A):
\({x^x} = 1\,\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,\left| {{x^x}} \right| = 1\,\,\,\,\,\left( * \right)\)
\(x > 0\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,\left\{ \matrix{\\
\,0 < x < 1\,\,\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,{x^x} < 1\,\,\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,{x^x} = 1\,\,,\,\,\,0 < x < 1\,\,\,\,\,{\rm{impossible}}\,\, \hfill \cr \\
\,x = 1\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,{\rm{possible}} \hfill \cr \\
\,x > 1\,\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,{x^x} > \,\,\,1\,\,\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,{x^x} = 1\,\,,\,\,\,x > 1\,\,\,\,\,{\rm{impossible}} \hfill \cr} \right.\)
\(x < 0\,\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,{x^x} = {1 \over {{x^{\left| x \right|}}}}\,\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,1\mathop = \limits^{\left( * \right)} \,\,\left| {{x^x}} \right|\, = {1 \over {\,\left| {{x^{\left| x \right|}}} \right|}} = {1 \over {\left| x \right|{\,^{\left| x \right|}}}}\,\,\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,\left| x \right|{\,^{\left| x \right|}}\,\,\, = \,\,\,1\,\,\,\,\left\{ \matrix{\\
\,\,\,\left| x \right| \ne 1\,\,\,\,\mathop \Rightarrow \limits^{{\rm{previous}}\,\,{\rm{cases}}} \,\,\,\,\,{\rm{impossible}} \hfill \cr \\
\,\,\,x = - 1\,\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,{x^x} = - 1 \ne 1 \hfill \cr} \right.\)
Regards,
Fabio.
I would argue against someone claiming 0^0 is not 1.
Yes, 0^0 can be called undefined at some places but 0^0 is taken as 1 in many important theorems and maths would break down if we did not accept this fact..
For example..
Binomial expansion..
If we take 0^0 as undefined \(7^20^0\) should be undefined and not 49..
However 0^0 being debatable between 1 and undefined will not be tested on GMAT.