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agdimple333
What seemed as remarkable as the advent of the Internet has been the use of this technology to proliferate in the form of a blog what would traditionally have been a personal diary.

A What seemed as remarkable as the advent of the Internet
B The concept that had been as remarkable as the advent of the Internet
C No less remarkable than the advent of the Internet
D The advent of the Internet has been nonetheless remarkable than
E Advent of the Internet was just as remarkable as

My answer is A because "as remarkable as" is used to compare between "the advent of the Internet" with "the use of this technology".

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yeah i was thinking between A and C as well
lets see what the OA is
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any OA or expert around here please!!
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I think its C.I think "seems" would be appropriate than "seemed".

Expert views please.
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Thanks Mike! Truly appreciate your response.

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Tough (A) Vs (C )
(C) wins
only (C) tells that the advent and proliferation of the new technology is referring to the same thing.
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Its strange that the OA changes the original meaning somewhat.

As remarkable as vs. No less remarkable

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Its strange that the OA changes the original meaning somewhat.
As remarkable as vs. No less remarkable
Actually, the OA doesn't change the meaning at all. Consider these two sentences:

1) P is as remarkable as Q.

2) P is no less remarkable than Q.

Those are two different ways of saying exactly the same thing. Sentence #2 might sound strange, because it's more formal, and less common in colloquial English; nevertheless, it's perfectly correct, and it means exactly the same thing as #1. This is the advantage of a weekly habit of reading, say, the Economist magazine: it would accustom your ear to such formal language.

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
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mikemcgarry
manwiththeharmonica
Its strange that the OA changes the original meaning somewhat.
As remarkable as vs. No less remarkable
Actually, the OA doesn't change the meaning at all. Consider these two sentences:

1) P is as remarkable as Q.

2) P is no less remarkable than Q.

Those are two different ways of saying exactly the same thing. Sentence #2 might sound strange, because it's more formal, and less common in colloquial English; nevertheless, it's perfectly correct, and it means exactly the same thing as #1. This is the advantage of a weekly habit of reading, say, the Economist magazine: it would accustom your ear to such formal language.

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)

Mike,

Although your whole explanation makes complete sense, but I have an objection- "P no less remarkable than q" can also mean P equal to or greater than Q, thereby introducing a change in the meaning of original sentence. A kind of logical deduction we often make while solving CR questions.

Would you want to shed some light on that?

Regards
Yash
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Yash26
Mike,

Although your whole explanation makes complete sense, but I have an objection- "P no less remarkable than q" can also mean P equal to or greater than Q, thereby introducing a change in the meaning of original sentence. A kind of logical deduction we often make while solving CR questions.

Would you want to shed some light on that?

Regards
Yash
Dear Yash,

I'm happy to respond. :-)

With all due respect, my friend, you are thinking about language in a way that suggests that you are exceptionally talented at mathematical and logical analysis but don't necessarily have all the intuition for how the English language is used in practice.

Yes, if we turn the phrase into pure mathematics and remove it from all its connotations in the living language, we might deduce that "P is no less [adjective] than Q" literally means "not (P < Q)," which of course is the logical equivalent of "(P > or = Q)." This is logic that departs from real communication. In a way, it reminds me of the xkcd about small talk. If we become rigorously logical, we absolutely lose our ability to navigate ordinary conversation in the world.

In practice, in the way that language is actually used, "P is no less [adjective] than Q" means exactly the same thing as "P is as [adjective] as Q." Yes, that's not entirely consistent with rigorous logic. On behalf of the entire English language and all its speakers, I apologize. Some real constructions in the living language are illogical, and some are outright wacky. (Most of the truly wacky stuff is informal and would not find its way onto the GMAT!) Is this the way real language should be? I don't know, but it's the way that language is. Moreover, the GMAT SC will find ways to punish you if you cling to the hyper-logical interpretation to the neglect of the way that real people communicate.

Does this make sense?
Mike :-)
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Yash26
Mike,

Although your whole explanation makes complete sense, but I have an objection- "P no less remarkable than q" can also mean P equal to or greater than Q, thereby introducing a change in the meaning of original sentence. A kind of logical deduction we often make while solving CR questions.

Would you want to shed some light on that?

Regards
Yash
Dear Yash,

I'm happy to respond. :-)

With all due respect, my friend, you are thinking about language in a way that suggests that you are exceptionally talented at mathematical and logical analysis but don't necessarily have all the intuition for how the English language is used in practice.

Yes, if we turn the phrase into pure mathematics and remove it from all its connotations in the living language, we might deduce that "P is no less [adjective] than Q" literally means "not (P < Q)," which of course is the logical equivalent of "(P > or = Q)." This is logic that departs from real communication. In a way, it reminds me of the xkcd about small talk. If we become rigorously logical, we absolutely lose our ability to navigate ordinary conversation in the world.

In practice, in the way that language is actually used, "P is no less [adjective] than Q" means exactly the same thing as "P is as [adjective] as Q." Yes, that's not entirely consistent with rigorous logic. On behalf of the entire English language and all its speakers, I apologize. Some real constructions in the living language are illogical, and some are outright wacky. (Most of the truly wacky stuff is informal and would not find its way onto the GMAT!) Is this the way real language should be? I don't know, but it's the way that language is. Moreover, the GMAT SC will find ways to punish you if you cling to the hyper-logical interpretation to the neglect of the way that real people communicate.

Does this make sense?
Mike :-)

Thank you Mike,

Since, I am a "change of meaning" fan, I wanted to highlight and have a healthy discussion. I get your point and probably will like to practice similar questions.

Regards

Yash
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Between A and C , i rejected A for the word "seemed"
What seemed suggests that a contrast is coming up further in the sentence but actually does not come up.For example What seemed as a difficult question turned out to be easy.
Basically seemed in the past is a problem for me

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I am sure that the answer is C as it is the only one that seems clear and concise, and it has no apparent errors.
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I have a general question related to question words in declarative sentences, I am of the understanding that in a declarative sentence, Question word + subject + Verb is the correct usage.

I have however come across official examples where question word + verb + subject is used, as well as examples where question word + verb + subject is wrong solely for the reason of a declarative sentence to follow the question word + subject pattern.

Please advise mikemcgarry
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