A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners : GMAT Critical Reasoning (CR)
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# A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners

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A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners [#permalink]

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16 Sep 2005, 05:00
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A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes. More than twenty percent of these dog owners, the study also showed, participate in dog show. Thus it is obvious that people who train ther dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows than are people who do not train their dogs.

The conclusion above is correct provided that which of the following statements is also true?

(A) It is impossible for a dog to complete in a dog show if the dog has not completed at least one formal obedience training class.
(B) The proportion of dog owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes is representative of the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes.
(C) Dog owners who participate in dog shows only train ther dogs by enrolling them in formal obedience training lessons.
(D) Participation in dog shows is a reliable indicator of how much attention a dog owner pays to his dog.
(E) Only purebred dogs can participate in dog shows, so many owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes are excluded from ths activity.
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16 Sep 2005, 05:37
Hmm, I think I'll pick A.

(B) The proportion of dog owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes is representative of the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes.
- There is no mention about training dogs outside of classes.

(C) Dog owners who participate in dog shows only train ther dogs by enrolling them in formal obedience training lessons.
- If owners enroll their dogs in obediance schools, then they may also enroll them in dog shows. Not the other way around.

(D) Participation in dog shows is a reliable indicator of how much attention a dog owner pays to his dog.
- How much attention the owner pays to his dog is irrelevant to the conclusion.

(E) Only purebred dogs can participate in dog shows, so many owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes are excluded from ths activity.
- This is irrelevant to the argument because there is no mentioning of purebred dogs.
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16 Sep 2005, 06:04
looks like A
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16 Sep 2005, 06:59
I would pick B

The conclusion is:
people who train their dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows than are people who do not train their dogs.

A looks good but seem little too extreme for me.
This means that's it's only the 20 percent of the 10 percent of the dog
owners dogs who can participate in dog show.

B looks better to me.
If we know that dogs get trained not only in the formal training session but also get trained somehwere place else, that implies that there're in fact more dogs who are trained than only the 10 percent of dogs who goes in those formal training classes. I guess this strengthen the conclusion.

C. this would weaken the conclusion

D not relevant

E not relevant
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16 Sep 2005, 09:04
macca wrote:
I would pick B

The conclusion is:
people who train their dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows than are people who do not train their dogs.
B looks better to me.
If we know that dogs get trained not only in the formal training session but also get trained somehwere place else, that implies that there're in fact more dogs who are trained than only the 10 percent of dogs who goes in those formal training classes. I guess this strengthen the conclusion.

Macca, option B talks only about people who train their dogs outside the class , but nothing is said about their participating in dog shows. If anything, it'll serve to detract from the conclusion.
I know my explanation is not very clear. If somebody can do the job better, do step up!
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16 Sep 2005, 19:41
This is a tricky one. Between A and B - My vote for B!

Why not A?
The conclusion says .....more likely than.....

A says that a dog has to have atleast one training class..else it is impossible to attend a show. This contradicts the conclusion. If this is true than, the .... more likely than.......wont be possible.
If A were to be true, then the conclusion should not have said..more likely than...
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17 Sep 2005, 04:19
hmm....truly a tough one..,.
I see C also as a possible contender.
Can some one prove why C shud not be an answer???

Thanks,
Krishna
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18 Sep 2005, 14:41
I am stuck between A and C... but finally I will choose A
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18 Sep 2005, 19:53
C for me
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18 Sep 2005, 20:00
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Cheers, Rahul.

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18 Sep 2005, 21:27
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18 Sep 2005, 21:57
Hi,

can you plz give the OA..

Krishna
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19 Sep 2005, 10:24
A for me.

we need to prove the percentage of dog show participants from the group of trained dogs is more than the percentage of dog show participants from the group of untrained dogs. How do I show 20% of the trained dogs is a relatively higher percentage?

Thru A. If it is impossible to particpate in the dog show without the formal training program then there are no dogs outside of the formally trained group that participate in the dog show. That makes the 20% a max.

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19 Sep 2005, 12:24
The OA is B

macca's reasoning is correct

A is too extreme and B accounts for the other people who train their dogs outside of formal class
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20 Sep 2005, 00:40
kimmyg wrote:
The OA is B

macca's reasoning is correct

A is too extreme and B accounts for the other people who train their dogs outside of formal class

I have not been to understand OA.

Conclusion : people who train ther dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows than are people who do not train their dogs.

20 Sep 2005, 00:40
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