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A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th

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A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th  [#permalink]

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A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes. More than twenty percent of these dog owners, the study also showed, participate in dog shows. Thus, it is obvious that people who train their dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows than are people who do not train their dogs.

The conclusion above is correct provided which of the following statements is also true?

(A) It is impossible for a dog to compete in a dog show if the dog has not completed at least one formal obedience training class.

(B) The proportion of dog owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes is representative of the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes.

(C) Dog owners who participate in dog shows only train their dogs by enrolling them in formal obedience training lessons.

(D) Participation in dog shows is a reliable indicator of how much attention a dog owner pays to his dog.

(E) Only purebred dogs can participate in dog shows, so many owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes are excluded from this activity.

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Re: A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th  [#permalink]

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New post 01 Mar 2016, 08:27
Seems B ( Though a bit skeptical ).... Arrived at (B) only through elimination strategy...
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Re: A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th  [#permalink]

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New post 01 Mar 2016, 10:12
A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes. More than twenty percent of these dog owners, the study also showed, participate in dog shows. Thus, it is obvious that people who train their dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows than are people who do not train their dogs.

The conclusion above is correct provided which of the following statements is also true?

(A) It is impossible for a dog to compete in a dog show if the dog has not completed at least one formal obedience training class. <No where it has been mentioned about competency. Also in conclusion it is stated as ""people who train their dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows". So obedience training class not required. Hence eliminated>

(B) The proportion of dog owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes is representative of the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes. <Keep on Hold>

(C) Dog owners who participate in dog shows only train their dogs by enrolling them in formal obedience training lessons.No. It has been mentioned in the argument as "people who train their dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows". its not mentioned as Obedience training class

(D) Participation in dog shows is a reliable indicator of how much attention a dog owner pays to his dog.<Owner's attention for dog out of scope. Eliminate.>

(E) Only purebred dogs can participate in dog shows, so many owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes are excluded from this activity. <Falsify the conclusion.>
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Re: A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th  [#permalink]

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New post 14 Jun 2018, 11:02
carcass wrote:
A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes. More than twenty percent of these dog owners, the study also showed, participate in dog shows. Thus, it is obvious that people who train their dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows than are people who do not train their dogs.

The conclusion above is correct provided which of the following statements is also true?

(A) It is impossible for a dog to compete in a dog show if the dog has not completed at least one formal obedience training class.

(B) The proportion of dog owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes is representative of the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes.

(C) Dog owners who participate in dog shows only train their dogs by enrolling them in formal obedience training lessons.

(D) Participation in dog shows is a reliable indicator of how much attention a dog owner pays to his dog.

(E) Only purebred dogs can participate in dog shows, so many owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes are excluded from this activity.


For sure we have to choose B. It is the only valid option.
And GMAT likes the word "representative" )

But why I do not like even B. There is nothing said about proportion of dog owners who do not train their dogs and participate in dog shows. How much? 0%, 1%, 50%? Nothing about comparison.
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Re: A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Jun 2018, 21:21
Can you explain option B in detail . it seems a little confusing
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Re: A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Jun 2018, 05:47
Please provide a detailed explanation which talks about all the answer choices. Thank you.
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Re: A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Jun 2018, 11:07
renjana wrote:
Can you explain option B in detail . it seems a little confusing


-----------------------
A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes. More than twenty percent of these dog owners, the study also showed, participate in dog shows. Thus, it is obvious that people who train their dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows than are people who do not train their dogs.

The conclusion above is correct provided which of the following statements is also true?

(A) It is impossible for a dog to compete in a dog show if the dog has not completed at least one formal obedience training class.

(B) The proportion of dog owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes is representative of the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes.

(C) Dog owners who participate in dog shows only train their dogs by enrolling them in formal obedience training lessons.

(D) Participation in dog shows is a reliable indicator of how much attention a dog owner pays to his dog.

(E) Only purebred dogs can participate in dog shows, so many owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes are excluded from this activity.
-----------------------

I understand it this way.

Conclusion: Thus, it is obvious that people who train their dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows than are people who do not train their dogs.

Question: The conclusion above is correct provided which of the following statements is also true?

Answer: (B) The proportion of dog owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes is representative of the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes.

Imagine that there are 100 participants in the dog show in America in 2018.
45 of them took obediance class. It is representative of the the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes. So number of participants that are trained outside these classes (by owners themselves or by coaches or whatever) is of that order (45) - something similar (20, 30, 40, 45, 50)
So the sum will be more than 50 of 100 and this means that number of such participants is more than a half. It is what wee need.

Now imagine that proportion of dog owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes is NOT representative of the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes.
There are 100 participants in the dog show in America in 2018. 45 of them took obediance class. Because it is not representative the number of participants who is trained outside these classes can be 0,1,2
And the sum is less than 50 - less than half - conclusion breaks apart.

So we choose B.

Why this is bad option from the other side and it is not a great question?
Because:
Imagine again that there are 100 participants in the dog show in America in 2018.
10 of them took obediance class. It is representative of the the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes. So number of participants that are trained outside these classes (by owners themselves or by coaches or whatever) is of that order (10) - something similar (5, 9, 15, 19)
The sum will be less than 50 - less than a half.

Because we know nothing about the number/proportion of dog owners who do not train their dogs.
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A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Jun 2018, 11:16
avijit02 wrote:
Please provide a detailed explanation which talks about all the answer choices. Thank you.


Decided to describe options in individual post.

Conclusion: Thus, it is obvious that people who train their dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows than are people who do not train their dogs.

Question: The conclusion above is correct provided which of the following statements is also true?


(A) It is impossible for a dog to compete in a dog show if the dog has not completed at least one formal obedience training class.
This is so strong statement. It means that only dogs, who were trained in special classes can participate in these shows.
So there are no untrained in these classes dogs in the shows.
Thus if A is true the conclusion will be also true.
But this option is too strong. It [color=#0000ff]need not
to be true to conclusion to be true.

[/color]
(B) The proportion of dog owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes is representative of the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes.
discussed above

(C) Dog owners who participate in dog shows only train their dogs by enrolling them in formal obedience training lessons.
It can be 5 such dog owners and 95 dog owners who do not train their dogs at all. Does not pass

(D) Participation in dog shows is a reliable indicator of how much attention a dog owner pays to his dog.
Totally out of scope.

(E) Only purebred dogs can participate in dog shows, so many owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes are excluded from this activity.
it is out of scope and moreover weakens the conclusion
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Re: A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th  [#permalink]

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New post 29 Aug 2018, 08:25
Got to B via PoE but I am not fully happy with the reasoning provided so far.

Any of the gurus care to explain? :)
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Re: A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th  [#permalink]

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New post 04 Sep 2018, 08:32
Hello Expert,
Kindly explain the meaning of option B.

Thank you.
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Re: A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th  [#permalink]

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New post 30 Sep 2018, 22:39
There's a bit of a problem with this one. The question stem is asking for an answer that would make the argument completely correct. This is a Sufficient Assumption question, something we normally only see on the LSAT. The problem, though, is that answer choice B is not sufficient. It is a necessary assumption, but it doesn't prove the argument correct.

It's necessary because the premise is about people who take their dogs in for formal training classes, but the conclusion is about ALL people who train their dogs. If people who train their dogs WITHOUT classes don't do dog shows, then perhaps the general population of people who train their dogs is NOT more likely to do dog shows. It's like if I had a premise about couples who renew their wedding vows, and then made a conclusion about all people who remain committed to their marriages. If the small group who renew their vows was not like the others, then we couldn't use them to make a conclusion.

So that's ONE problem with the argument, and that's why B is the best answer. (The rest are no good at all.) But the argument has another problem, and it's a big one. We have no idea what percent of dog owners who do NOT train their dogs also participate in dog shows. What if, say , 60% of people who do NOT train their dogs choose to do shows? Then the conclusion would be blown to bits--it would appear that trainers were LESS likely than others to do shows. This is a glaring hole in the argument, so B doesn't deliver the goods and make the conclusion correct. That leaves us without a valid answer. (One might wonder how you'd do a dog show without training your dog, but that's outside the scope of the argument. If that option isn't possible, then there's no need for the conclusion in the first place.)

As usual, we're better off studying verbal with official questions . . .
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Re: A study showed that only ten percent of American dog owners enroll th &nbs [#permalink] 30 Sep 2018, 22:39
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