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siddhantvarma
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I think, you could still mark (D) given that as you said: the profit is slightly less than 300% and 2% brokerage is negligible
And the question is asking for an aproximation. Why would you eliminated (D) based just on that?

Kurtosis
If the purchase price was 6$ per share then the investor would have made a profit of 300%.

Since the purchase price is slightly more than 6$ the profit would be slightly less than 300%.

Also a 2% brokerage is negligible and it brings down the profit percentage only by a small value. Approximation is very useful to solve these kind of problems as the answer choices are far apart.

Answer: C
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My two cents:
Cost = 6 +1/8 = 49/8
Sell price = 24
Profit = 17 + 3/8 = 139/8, so Profit% = (139/8)/(49/8) = 139/49 ~ 139/50 = 278/100 = 278%, almost 280%
Brokerage fee is negligible, so answer is C.
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I have a question here that's a little out of the main discussion.

We should only have 6.25(100) in our denominator, right? We will get shares worth that much only, the brokerage is an expense and not an investment.

6.25(100)(0.02) should be subtracted in the numerator in calculating the net gains, but it shouldn't be accounted in the denominator as we need return on investment.

What do you think? Bunuel GMATNinja KarishmaB
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We don't need to look at it from an accountant perspective and how it is dealt with would vary from country to country and case to case.
Say if I invest $100 out of which $2 goes to the platform and I get shares worth $98, my cost price would be $100. When I sell it, say I sell all those shares for $200 but I get only $196 so the profit I get is $96 which gives me a profit of 96%.
My cost would include whatever expenses I incur to buy the product (transport and other logistics cost, agency costs etc). This is how I would handle it for GMAT. Expenses at the time of buy added to cost and expenses at the time of selling reduced from selling price.






GMAT2point0
I have a question here that's a little out of the main discussion.

We should only have 6.25(100) in our denominator, right? We will get shares worth that much only, the brokerage is an expense and not an investment.

6.25(100)(0.02) should be subtracted in the numerator in calculating the net gains, but it shouldn't be accounted in the denominator as we need return on investment.

What do you think? Bunuel GMATNinja KarishmaB
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surupab
An investor purchased 100 shares of stock X at 6 1/8 dollars per share and sold them all a year later at 24 dollars per share. If the investor paid a 2 percent brokerage fee on both the total purchase price and the total selling price, which of the following is closest to the investor's percent gain on this investment?

(A) 92%
(B) 240%
(C) 280%
(D) 300%
(E) 380%
For ease of calculations lets consider purchase price = 6 per share and sale price = 24 per share

Investment value = 6 * 100 = 600
Brokerage on investment = 600*0.02 = 12

Sale value = 24*100 = 2400
Brokerage on sale = 2400*0.02 = 48

Total profit = 2400 - 600 - 12 - 48 = 1740
% profit over investment = 1740 / 600 * 100 = 290%

Now we have 280% as one option and 300% as another. We will choose the former as we ignored the 1/18 in the purchase price which will surely bring the profit down.
Hence, Ans = C = 280%
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