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Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens

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Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans interbred with Neanderthals, but DNA testing of a Neanderthal’s remains indicates that this is not the case. The DNA of contemporary humans is significantly different from that of the Neanderthal.

Which one of the following is an assumption required by the anthropologist’s argument?

(A) At least some Neanderthals lived at the same time and in the same places as prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans.
(B) DNA testing of remains is significantly less reliable than DNA testing of samples from living species.
(C) The DNA of prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans was not significantly more similar to that of Neanderthals than is the DNA of contemporary humans.
(D) Neanderthals and prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans were completely isolated from each other geographically.
(E) Any similarity in the DNA of two species must be the result of interbreeding.

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[Reveal] Spoiler: OA

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Re: Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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New post 01 Aug 2017, 23:48
I don't know what is technically the right answer, but I'd have to pick A. That seems to me to fit the best.


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Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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New post 02 Aug 2017, 09:19
I was stuck between C and E, but E is too extreme. Furthermore, C gives a clear connection between the DNAs of the three species. E is the correct answer.
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Re: Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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Akela wrote:
Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans interbred with Neanderthals, but DNA testing of a Neanderthal’s remains indicates that this is not the case. The DNA of contemporary humans is significantly different from that of the Neanderthal.

Old Belief - Prehistoric homesapinen ancestors of contemporary humans interbred with Neanderthals.
Contradiction - DNA testing of Neanderthal remains indicates this is NOT the case.
Result - DNA of contemporary humans is SIGNIFICANTLY different from that of N's.

Which one of the following is an assumption required by the anthropologist’s argument?
Quote:
(A) At least some Neanderthals lived at the same time and in the same places as prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans.

The argument is about the similarity or lack thereof of the DNA, so this is irrelevant. OUT!


Quote:
(B) DNA testing of remains is significantly less reliable than DNA testing of samples from living species.

This is a far-fetched assumption that LSAT has made for us, but the argument in no shape or form refers to this idea. OUT!


Quote:
(C) The DNA of prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans was not significantly more similar to that of Neanderthals than is the DNA of contemporary humans.

If pre-historic homosapien's interbred with neanderthals, then the author would have to assume that the contemporary human's DNA has not evolved at all to showcase similarity. And is further proven as the researcher test the DNA of contemporary humans with neanderthals. This is a good option. KEEP!


Quote:
(D) Neanderthals and prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans were completely isolated from each other geographically.

Contradicts the old belief i.e. the premise so this is OUT!


Quote:
(E) Any similarity in the DNA of two species must be the result of interbreeding.

Let's say this is true, but we did not find any overlap in the DNA. Does that mean they did not interbreed especially when we have not compared the DNA of prehistoric homosapiens with neanderthals. Close, but C is better. This is OUT too!

C is the right answer.
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Re: Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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New post 05 Sep 2017, 19:25
from what I understand in choice C is Unlike DNA of Homo Sapiens, DNA of contemporary humans are much more closer to Neanderthals.
but the argument says otherwise "The DNA of contemporary humans is significantly different from that of the Neanderthal."
akshayk
Can you please elaborate on what you mean by "evolving to showcase similarity" in these lines
"If pre-historic homosapien's interbred with neanderthals, then the author would have to assume that the contemporary human's DNA has not evolved at all to showcase similarity. And is further proven as the researcher test the DNA of contemporary humans with neanderthals. This is a good option. KEEP!
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Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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New post 06 Sep 2017, 02:20
Hi mikemcgarry

I chose E but that is not the answer .
C is the answer .
I chose option E because it says similarity in DNA is caused by interbreeding than the DNAs are different and that is why the conclusion follows.
Regarding C I did not understood it in the first place but I'm more close reading it says that the DNA of ancestors is not more similar to the DNA of the Neanderthal than the DNA of the modern human beings .
Please help me in my reasoning and what is rationale for C to be the correct answer
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Last edited by arvind910619 on 09 Sep 2017, 02:59, edited 2 times in total.

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Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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New post 09 Sep 2017, 01:29
Masshole wrote:
Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans interbred with Neanderthals, but DNA testing of a Neanderthal’s remains indicates that this is not the case. The DNA of contemporary humans is significantly different from that of the Neanderthal.

Which one of the following is an assumption required by the anthropologist’s argument?

(A) At least some Neanderthals lived at the same time and in the same places as prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans.
(B) DNA testing of remains is significantly less reliable than DNA testing of samples from living species.
(C) The DNA of prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans was not significantly more similar to that of Neanderthals than is the DNA of contemporary humans.
(D) Neanderthals and prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans were completely isolated from each other geographically.
(E) Any similarity in the DNA of two species must be the result of interbreeding.

Resource: LSAT


abhimahna
Please explain option C and E. Why is C correct and E wrong?
The conclusion of the argument is that "the ancestors didn't breed with neanderthals". I think E correctly shows that.

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Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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New post 09 Sep 2017, 02:21
gmatexam439 wrote:
abhimahna
Please explain option C and E. Why is C correct and E wrong?
The conclusion of the argument is that "the ancestors didn't breed with neanderthals". I think E correctly shows that.

Regards


Hi gmatexam439 ,

Here is the catch. We are told that since their DNAs donot match, they didn't interbreed.

Note that we cannot NEVER assume that if they match they MUST interbreed.

This is a common mistake that we all do.

Take the following example:

If I am an Indian IT Male, I cannot get into Harvard.

Now, if you say the following, it would be 100% incorrect.

If I am not an Indian IT Make, I must get into Harvard. Really?? What if I am chinese?

So, be extremely careful about such situations.

C is correctly saying that DNA doesn't change in time, meaning my current DNAs are similar to the DNAs of my ex-ex-ex-ex-ex grand parent.

Does that make sense?
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Re: Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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New post 09 Sep 2017, 02:59
Hi mikemcgarry

I chose E but that is not the answer .
C is the answer .
I chose option E because it says similarity in DNA is caused by interbreeding than the DNAs are different and that is why the conclusion follows.
Regarding C I did not understood it in the first place but I'm more close reading it says that the DNA of ancestors is not more similar to the DNA of the Neanderthal than the DNA of the modern human beings .
Please help me in my reasoning and what is rationale for C to be the correct answer
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Re: Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans interbred with Neanderthals, but DNA testing of a Neanderthal’s remains indicates that this is not the case. The DNA of contemporary humans is significantly different from that of the Neanderthal.

Conclusion: Since DNA of contemporary humans is significantly different from that of the Neanderthal, the prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans did not interbreed with Neanderthals.

Falsification Situation:
1) What if the remains only give partial information about the DNA of the Neanderthals?
2) It is not necessary that when A and B breed, the offspring C will have the DNA traces of both A and B in a significant amount.

Possible assumptions:
1) DNA does not destroy with time and thus the remains do not provide any partial information.
2) The offspring has DNA traces of both the parents in significant proportion.


Which one of the following is an assumption required by the anthropologist’s argument?

(A) At least some Neanderthals lived at the same time and in the same places as prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans.
Negate: No Neanderthals lived at the same time and in the same places as prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans.
This rather supports the fact that prehistoric Homo sapiens and Neanderthals did not breed; they never got a chance.

(B) DNA testing of remains is significantly less reliable than DNA testing of samples from living species.
Negate: DNA testing of remains is significantly reliable than DNA testing of samples from living species.
This means that the DNA testing of the remains is reliable and thus the conclusion is okay.


(C) The DNA of prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans was not significantly more similar to that of Neanderthals than is the DNA of contemporary humans.
Negate: The DNA of PHS ancestors of contemporary humans was significantly more similar to that of Neanderthals than is the DNA of contemporary humans.
This information tells us that the PHS is not the ancestors of contemporary human as the DNA will not match. This information destroys the conclusion from within because it makes us believe that the DNA-testing is faulty. This option is a possible conclusion.

(D) Neanderthals and prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans were completely isolated from each other geographically.
Negate: Neanderthals and prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans were not completely isolated from each other geographically.
This does not affect the conclusion.


(E) Any similarity in the DNA of two species must be the result of interbreeding.
Negate: No similarity in the DNA of two species must be the result of interbreeding.
As per the argument, the DNA of contemporary humans and the DNA of the remains of Neanderthals are significantly different but we cannot say that there is no similarity between them. Thus, this information does not affect the conclusion.

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Re: Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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New post 10 Sep 2017, 03:12
abhimahna wrote:
gmatexam439 wrote:
abhimahna
Please explain option C and E. Why is C correct and E wrong?
The conclusion of the argument is that "the ancestors didn't breed with neanderthals". I think E correctly shows that.

Regards


Hi gmatexam439 ,

Here is the catch. We are told that since their DNAs donot match, they didn't interbreed.

Note that we cannot NEVER assume that if they match they MUST interbreed.

This is a common mistake that we all do.

Take the following example:

If I am an Indian IT Male, I cannot get into Harvard.

Now, if you say the following, it would be 100% incorrect.

If I am not an Indian IT Make, I must get into Harvard. Really?? What if I am chinese?

So, be extremely careful about such situations.

C is correctly saying that DNA doesn't change in time, meaning my current DNAs are similar to the DNAs of my ex-ex-ex-ex-ex grand parent.

Does that make sense?


Hi @abhimanha Bro,

The DNA of prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors (father) of contemporary humans (child) was not significantly more similar to that of Neanderthals (step mom) than is the DNA of contemporary humans (child).

This argument is basically saying father's dna wasn't similar to step-mom's dna. father's dna was similar to dna of child.

So we are basically stating that dna of father and child are same that's why they are ancestors and successors. but the same is not the case with step-mom and child.

Is my understanding of the statement correct?

Regards
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Re: Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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New post 10 Sep 2017, 08:53
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arvind910619 wrote:
Hi mikemcgarry

I chose E but that is not the answer .
C is the answer .
I chose option E because it says similarity in DNA is caused by interbreeding than the DNAs are different and that is why the conclusion follows.
Regarding C I did not understood it in the first place but I'm more close reading it says that the DNA of ancestors is not more similar to the DNA of the Neanderthal than the DNA of the modern human beings .
Please help me in my reasoning and what is rationale for C to be the correct answer

Quote:
(C) The DNA of prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans was not significantly more similar to that of Neanderthals than is the DNA of contemporary humans.

The author uses the evidence that "the DNA of contemporary humans is significantly different from that of the Neanderthal" to conclude that prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans did NOT interbreed with Neanderthals. In other words, according to the author, if the PHS ancestors of contemporary humans HAD interbred with Neanderthals, the DNA of the Neanderthal would have been passed down to contemporary humans and there would not be significant differences between the DNA of contemporary humans and the DNA of the Neanderthal.

If we negate choice (C), that would mean that the differences between the DNA of contemporary humans and the DNA of their PHS ancestors are COMPARABLE to the differences between the DNA of contemporary humans and the DNA of the Neanderthal. This would tells us that we CANNOT rely on similarity of DNA to determine whether contemporary humans descended from a particular group (since we KNOW that contemporary humans descended from their PHS ancestors).

This would nullify the author's evidence, so choice (C) is the best answer.

I hope this helps!
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Re: Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens [#permalink]

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New post 11 Sep 2017, 06:40
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GMATNinja wrote:
arvind910619 wrote:
Hi mikemcgarry

I chose E but that is not the answer .
C is the answer .
I chose option E because it says similarity in DNA is caused by interbreeding than the DNAs are different and that is why the conclusion follows.
Regarding C I did not understood it in the first place but I'm more close reading it says that the DNA of ancestors is not more similar to the DNA of the Neanderthal than the DNA of the modern human beings .
Please help me in my reasoning and what is rationale for C to be the correct answer

Quote:
(C) The DNA of prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans was not significantly more similar to that of Neanderthals than is the DNA of contemporary humans.

The author uses the evidence that "the DNA of contemporary humans is significantly different from that of the Neanderthal" to conclude that prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans did NOT interbreed with Neanderthals. In other words, according to the author, if the PHS ancestors of contemporary humans HAD interbred with Neanderthals, the DNA of the Neanderthal would have been passed down to contemporary humans and there would not be significant differences between the DNA of contemporary humans and the DNA of the Neanderthal.

If we negate choice (C), that would mean that the differences between the DNA of contemporary humans and the DNA of their PHS ancestors are COMPARABLE to the differences between the DNA of contemporary humans and the DNA of the Neanderthal. This would tells us that we CANNOT rely on similarity of DNA to determine whether contemporary humans descended from a particular group (since we KNOW that contemporary humans descended from their PHS ancestors).

This would nullify the author's evidence, so choice (C) is the best answer.

I hope this helps!

Hi GMATNinja ,

Thanks for the wonderful explanation.

Regards,
Arvind
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Re: Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens   [#permalink] 11 Sep 2017, 06:40
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