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I read all the explanation, but I still could not understand why choice B is incorrect? Ellipses are not preferred when we have another correct choice that seems to be wordy?


In option A and B, the pronoun "they" refers to "automakers" (NOT "dividends") by virtue of parallelism*. Thus option A and B do not make sense: "...than automakers were" / "..than automakers have been" are both wrong because there isn't a possible word that is omitted (after "were"/"have been") occurring already in the sentence. The correct word that could follow is "setting", but this word does not occur in the sentence. Omission is not allowed from the second element of a parallel structure if the word does not already occur in the first element. Here the first element has the word "set", not "setting". Thus both options A and B are wrong.

[*If there are two antecedents of a pronoun which is the subject of a clause, then the subject pronoun refers to subject noun in another clause in the sentence (rather than a non-subject noun).]
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Thanks RD and Sayantanc2k,

The below OG question confused me.



Traffic safety officials predict that drivers will be equally likely to exceed the proposed speed limit as the current one.

A. equally likely to exceed the proposed speed limit as
B. equally likely to exceed the proposed speed limit as they are
C. equally likely that they will exceed the proposed speed limit as
D. as likely that they will exceed the proposed speed limit as
E. as likely to exceed the proposed speed limit as they are.

Correct answer is E. When we exapand choice E

Traffic safety officials predict that drivers will be as likely to exceed the proposed speed limit as they are exceeding the current one.

here "to exceed" is replaced by "exceeding" in the later part of the sentence. Please help !
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Traffic safety officials predict that drivers will be equally likely to exceed the proposed speed limit as the current one.

A. equally likely to exceed the proposed speed limit as
B. equally likely to exceed the proposed speed limit as they are
C. equally likely that they will exceed the proposed speed limit as
D. as likely that they will exceed the proposed speed limit as
E. as likely to exceed the proposed speed limit as they are.

Correct answer is E. When we exapand choice E

Traffic safety officials predict that drivers will be as likely to exceed the proposed speed limit as they are exceeding the current one.

here "to exceed" is replaced by "exceeding" in the later part of the sentence. Please help !
Keep in mind that there is no full stop at the end of the last option.

Option E does not give us Traffic safety officials predict that drivers will be as likely to exceed the proposed speed limit as they are exceeding the current one.

Instead, option E says
Traffic safety officials predict that drivers will be as likely to exceed the proposed speed limit as they are likely to exceed the current one.

Why did you go for the first one?
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Hi Experts,
I do understand the role that ellipsis is playing in this question. However, I am not able to understand what is required to repair option A.
I did select option C, but I want to understand ellipsis in more detail; hence I would like to understand why do we need action verb to repair option A.
One of the post specifies that we require action verb - did/have done (refer to below)

several industry analysts expect automakers to set dividends more conservatively that they were. Were can not work, it has to be do, have done or did because first part of comparision has action so we need [action not linking] verb.

Can you please resolve the doubt?

- Nikhil
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nikhilbhide
I am not able to understand what is required to repair option A.
Hi nikhilbhide, the core part of option A is:

Several industry analysts expect automakers to set dividends more conservatively than they were.

Since this involves Ellipsis, the most logical way to complete option A would be:

Several industry analysts expect automakers to set dividends more conservatively than they (automakers) were (conservative in setting dividends).

Now, the issue becomes clear. The above sentence is comparing:

i) How the automakers will set dividends (in future) Vs

ii) How conservative the automakers were in the past

This is not an apples-to apples comparison. An apples-to apples comparison would be:

i) How the automakers will set dividends (in future) Vs How the automakers set dividends in the past

Or

ii) How conservative the automakers will be (in future) Vs How conservative the automakers were in the past

In other words, we can’t have a mix-n-match.

p.s. Our book EducationAisle Sentence Correction Nirvana discusses Comparisons, their application and examples in significant detail. If someone is interested, PM me your email-id; I can mail the corresponding section.
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Could someone please explain how the they, in choice A and B are ambiguous? To me they are right next to a the noun they are referring to, and automakers is seperated by a comma.
Many comparisons employ ELLIPSIS: the omission of words whose presence is implied.
When words are omitted, the intended meaning must be crystal clear.
An ellipsis that allows for more than one logical interpretation is not viable.
A and B are incorrect because each allows for more than one logical interpretation.

Case 1: they = the automakers
A) Several industry analysts expect automakers to set dividends more conservatively than the automakers were [setting dividends].
B) Several industry analysts expect automakers to set dividends more conservatively than the automakers have been [setting dividends].

Case 2: they = the dividends
A) Several industry analysts expect automakers to set dividends more conservatively than the dividends were [set].
B) Several industry analysts expect automakers to set dividends more conservatively than the dividends have been [set].

Since Cases 1 and 2 are both logical interpretations, eliminate A and B.

Quote:
The only doubt in retrospect I have about B is I feel like the sentence leaves at an incomplete thought (missing 'setting' as the last word)
RULE:
A participle (VERBed or VERBing) may be omitted only if appears IN THE SAME FORM earlier in the sentence.
Answer choice B, Case 1:
Several industry analysts expect automakers to set dividends more conservatively than the automakers have been [setting dividends].
In Case 1, the participle in brackets -- setting -- is omitted but implied.
Because this participle does not appear earlier in the sentence, it may not be omitted in the clause in red -- another reason to eliminate B.

Quote:
I am not understanding how the 'they' in C is any less ambiguous than in A or B
In A and B, they is preceded by two viable antecedents (automakers and dividends).
As a result, A and B each allow for more than one logical interpretation.
C: Several industry analysts expect automakers to be more conservative than they have been in setting dividends.
Here, they is preceded by only ONE logical antecedent -- automakers -- so the intended referent for they is crystal clear.
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dear GMATNinja,
why is option-D incorrect?
thanks amd regards
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dear GMATNinja,
why is option-D incorrect?
thanks amd regards
It's fine to say, "Analysts expect {something}.":

  • For example, "Analysts expect that automakers will lose money in 2020."
  • The "that" clause functions as a noun here... it's the thing that analysts expect.

It's also fine to modify the {something} with a noun modifier:

  • For example, "Analysts expect volatility that will continue through the end of the fiscal year."
  • Here the thing that the analysts expect is "volatility", and the "that" clause simply modifies "volatility".

But in choice (D), we essentially have, "Analysts expect automakers that they will be more conservative than they were in setting dividends." If we replace the pronoun "they" with "automakers", we have:

  • "Analysts expect automakers that automakers will be more conservative than they were in setting dividends."

Analysts can expect automakers to {do} something. But expecting "automakers that automakers" is nonsense, so it's out.

I hope that helps!
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daagh
In this issue, whatever the structure, the pronoun they can refer only to automakers. It is only they who can set dividends for their companies and not the analysts nor any other plural words such as dividends. So we can rest at store all doubts about the pronoun reference.

More importantly the underlying principle here as a previous writer has pointed out, is the rule of ellipsis that disqualifies the choices A and B.

(A) to set dividends more conservatively than they were( in setting dividends )
(B) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been ( in setting dividends)


Thanks Daagh,

It would be great if you can expand on why there is no pronoun ambiguity in this as it seems there are two schools of thought on this thread. One, where people believe there is pronoun ambiguity and the other, where people believe there is none. I have gone though all the posts here, but it seems that a lot of people are still not clear on this. It would be great to have a "Back to the basics" understanding of this. GMATNinja - Would really appreciate your views on this as well.

My initial understanding was that, if there is No ambiguity then the sentence could read as under, making it correct.
"to set dividends more conservatively than they were setting them"

But I am guessing this cant work, because "Setting" is not parallel to "set"? Is that correct?

Also, if the sentence points to "dividends" which it intuitively seems to does, it could be written as:
"to set dividends more conservatively than they were being set"

But of course, the above cant work if we assume there is pronoun ambiguity OR if we assume that there is no ambiguity and the pronoun refers to "automakers".


sayantanc2k
AR15J
I read all the explanation, but I still could not understand why choice B is incorrect? Ellipses are not preferred when we have another correct choice that seems to be wordy?

In option A and B, the pronoun "they" refers to "automakers" (NOT "dividends") by virtue of parallelism*.

[*If there are two antecedents of a pronoun which is the subject of a clause, then the subject pronoun refers to subject noun in another clause in the sentence (rather than a non-subject noun).]

Thanks. That's a useful explanation. I do wonder, if anyone can elaborate, how "Automobile manufacturers" are the subject of the previous clause though?

If the previous clause is "severe industry analysts expect automakers" - The subject would be "Industry analysts". I am assuming "automakers - X - to set" cant be a clause, as "to set" cannot be a verb (To-verb).

Would appreciate any help on this. I am still looking for a really solid answer on why there is no pronoun ambiguity in this sentence.

Thanks
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daagh
In this issue, whatever the structure, the pronoun they can refer only to automakers. It is only they who can set dividends for their companies and not the analysts nor any other plural words such as dividends. So we can rest at store all doubts about the pronoun reference.

More importantly the underlying principle here as a previous writer has pointed out, is the rule of ellipsis that disqualifies the choices A and B.

(A) to set dividends more conservatively than they were( in setting dividends )
(B) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been ( in setting dividends)


Thanks Daagh,

It would be great if you can expand on why there is no pronoun ambiguity in this as it seems there are two schools of thought on this thread. One, where people believe there is pronoun ambiguity and the other, where people believe there is none. I have gone though all the posts here, but it seems that a lot of people are still not clear on this. It would be great to have a "Back to the basics" understanding of this. GMATNinja - Would really appreciate your views on this as well.

My initial understanding was that, if there is No ambiguity then the sentence could read as under, making it correct.
"to set dividends more conservatively than they were setting them"

But I am guessing this cant work, because "Setting" is not parallel to "set"? Is that correct?

Also, if the sentence points to "dividends" which it intuitively seems to does, it could be written as:
"to set dividends more conservatively than they were being set"

But of course, the above cant work if we assume there is pronoun ambiguity OR if we assume that there is no ambiguity and the pronoun refers to "automakers".

sayantanc2k
AR15J
I read all the explanation, but I still could not understand why choice B is incorrect? Ellipses are not preferred when we have another correct choice that seems to be wordy?

In option A and B, the pronoun "they" refers to "automakers" (NOT "dividends") by virtue of parallelism*.

[*If there are two antecedents of a pronoun which is the subject of a clause, then the subject pronoun refers to subject noun in another clause in the sentence (rather than a non-subject noun).]

Thanks. That's a useful explanation. I do wonder, if anyone can elaborate, how "Automobile manufacturers" are the subject of the previous clause though?

If the previous clause is "severe industry analysts expect automakers" - The subject would be "Industry analysts". I am assuming "automakers - X - to set" cant be a clause, as "to set" cannot be a verb (To-verb).

Would appreciate any help on this. I am still looking for a really solid answer on why there is no pronoun ambiguity in this sentence.

Thanks
Looking at the correct choice (C), there are indeed several plural nouns that come before the pronoun "they". But which of those things can be "more conservative in setting dividends"?

The only logical choice is "automakers". After all, it's the automobile companies that have common stocks, so those companies (aka the "automakers") are the ones who will set the dividends, not industry analysts. Is the pronoun "they" ambiguous in choice (C)? Maybe a little. But it's pretty easy to figure out what "they" refers to.

Unfortunately, as described in this video, there are no black and white rules regarding pronoun ambiguity. So rather than looking at each sentence in a bubble and trying to decide whether the pronouns are ambiguous or not, you're better off comparing the options.

Which choice(s) is/are the least ambiguous? Does a pronoun have a single logical antecedent in one option but multiple logical antecedents in the others? Which option(s) make(s) the meaning the clearest?

Remember, you are looking for the BEST answer choice out of the five available options -- not necessarily a perfect option. I know that's not a very satisfying response, but sadly the GMAT doesn't usually make things nice and simple for us. :)

I hope that helps!
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Quote:
Despite recent increases in sales and cash flow that have propelled automobile companies’ common stocks to new highs, several industry analysts expect automakers, in order to conserve cash, to set dividends more conservatively than they were.


(A) to set dividends more conservatively than they were

(B) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been

(C) to be more conservative than they have been in setting dividends

(D) that they will be more conservative than they were in setting dividends

(E) that they will be more conservative than they have been to set dividends

HI AndrewN, GMATCoachBen, generis

Can you help me with this problem? I read the whole thread but I'm not clear about the issues...

(A) to set dividends more conservatively than they were [to set ]

(B) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been [to set ]
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NandishSS
Quote:
Despite recent increases in sales and cash flow that have propelled automobile companies’ common stocks to new highs, several industry analysts expect automakers, in order to conserve cash, to set dividends more conservatively than they were.


(A) to set dividends more conservatively than they were

(B) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been

(C) to be more conservative than they have been in setting dividends

(D) that they will be more conservative than they were in setting dividends

(E) that they will be more conservative than they have been to set dividends

HI AndrewN, GMATCoachBen, generis

Can you help me with this problem? I read the whole thread but I'm not clear about the issues...

(A) to set dividends more conservatively than they were [to set ]

(B) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been [to set ]
Hello, NandishSS. The first split, between to or that, should be clear from the structure of the sentence: analysts expect automakers to do something, not expect automakers that something. Note that expect that would be fine, but placing a noun between the two words skews the structure and meaning. Choices (D) and (E) are out within seconds. Choices (A) and (B) suffer from pronoun ambiguity in their use of they. Exploring the different lines of the original sentence for modeling purposes, you can propose more than one interpretation:

1) analysts expect automakers to set dividends more conservatively than automakers were previously setting them

2) analysts expect automakers to set dividends more conservatively than dividends were set previously

Choice (C) avoids this lack of clarity by indicating a doer of the action—they at the end of that option can only refer to a group of people, since it is people who set dividends. That is really all it comes down to in this one. There is little else to analyze.

I hope that helps. Thank you for bringing my attention to the question.

- Andrew
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Want to understand the elimination reason for D&E. Didn't understand Daagh's explanation.
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Want to understand the elimination reason for D&E. Didn't understand Daagh's explanation.
Hi imnishitraj, we can either say:

...analysts expect automakers to be more conservative

Or

...analysts expect that automakers will be more conservative

But following is incorrect:

...analysts expect automakers that they will be more conservative
- You could view this as unidiomatic.
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Hi everyone,

If answer B were written

1) to set dividends more conservatively than dividends have been

Will that be correct? Can we use ellipsis to figure the answer means "dividends have been [set]"?

If ellipsis cannot to be use will answer B written the follow way be correct? Is the comparison clear?

2) to set dividends more conservatively than dividends have been set
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If ellipsis cannot to be use will answer B written the follow way be correct? Is the comparison clear?

2) to set dividends more conservatively than dividends have been set
Hi 750orNothing, at the very least, this would be incorrect because the passive voice dividends have been set does not tell us who has set dividends.
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The Question uses the subjunctive 'expect', so, why is the use of 'that' Incorrect in option D ?
Is it Incorrect because of the usage of 'will' with 'that'
Or
is the usage of "that" correct, but option (D) is Incorrect for a different reason?
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