daagh
In this issue, whatever the structure, the pronoun
they can refer only to automakers. It is only they who can set dividends for their companies and not the analysts nor any other plural words such as dividends. So we can rest at store all doubts about the pronoun reference.
More importantly the underlying principle here as a previous writer has pointed out, is the rule of ellipsis that disqualifies the choices A and B.
(A) to set dividends more conservatively than they were( in setting dividends )
(B) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been ( in setting dividends)
Thanks Daagh,
It would be great if you can expand on why there is no pronoun ambiguity in this as it seems there are two schools of thought on this thread. One, where people believe there is pronoun ambiguity and the other, where people believe there is none. I have gone though all the posts here, but it seems that a lot of people are still not clear on this. It would be great to have a "Back to the basics" understanding of this.
GMATNinja - Would really appreciate your views on this as well.
My initial understanding was that, if there is No ambiguity then the sentence could read as under, making it correct.
"to set dividends more conservatively than they were setting them"
But I am guessing this cant work, because "Setting" is not parallel to "set"? Is that correct?
Also, if the sentence points to "dividends" which it intuitively seems to does, it could be written as:
"to set dividends more conservatively than they were being set"
But of course, the above cant work if we assume there is pronoun ambiguity OR if we assume that there is no ambiguity and the pronoun refers to "automakers".
sayantanc2k
AR15J
I read all the explanation, but I still could not understand why choice B is incorrect? Ellipses are not preferred when we have another correct choice that seems to be wordy?
In option A and B, the pronoun "they" refers to "automakers" (NOT "dividends") by virtue of parallelism*.
[*If there are two antecedents of a pronoun which is the subject of a clause, then the subject pronoun refers to subject noun in another clause in the sentence (rather than a non-subject noun).]
Thanks. That's a useful explanation. I do wonder, if anyone can elaborate, how "Automobile manufacturers" are the subject of the previous clause though?
If the previous clause is "severe industry analysts expect automakers" - The subject would be "Industry analysts". I am assuming "automakers - X - to set" cant be a clause, as "to set" cannot be a verb (To-verb).
Would appreciate any help on this. I am still looking for a really solid answer on why there is no pronoun ambiguity in this sentence.
Thanks