Quote:
A) Government statistics on the size of foreign investment in real estate are inconclusive because neither federal nor state laws require disclosure of foreign ownership, and the Commerce Department, in its public tallies, does not categorize the owners.jawele
I failed to remember whether "statistics" was singular or plural and instead acted upon the idiom in order to make eliminations. I don't disagree that choice A is correct. However, could anyone comment on whether the interpretation such as this could be plausible:
<...> because
neither federal nor state laws require <...>
This structure seems to suggest that the laws that require ... X are not federal laws or state laws - then what are they (?). The structure seems to emphasise adjectives, which in turn both remove the possibility that the laws were federal or state, i.e. one type of the two. Hence, I would find "neither federal laws nor state laws" more suitable and clear. Nevertheless, could anybody please comment whether such interpretation could at all be implied or not?
Thanks
MikeScarn GMATNinja GMATNinjaTwo
aragonn generis hazelnut jawele , interesting question.
In answer to your question: no.
The sentence explains that the Commerce Department would be a (THE)
third source of such statistics but it does not categorize owners (into foreign and native owners).
Further, these statistics on foreign ownership are not just any statistics. They are
government statistics. The two major levels of government in a federalist structure cover the rest of the levels. (Preemptively: I will avoid 10th Amendment discussion.

)
I think meaning is clear from context. The sentence intends to convey that the three sources (federal laws, state laws, Commerce Department) from which we could obtain reliable
government statistics on foreign ownership fall short and thus whatever government statistics we do have about foreign ownership are inconclusive.
Quote:
This structure seems to suggest that the laws that require ... X are not federal laws or state laws - then what are they (?).
I can understand that interpretation, but in context, this structure conveys that
no pertinent and possible laws exist.
The two government levels that could pass laws designed to require ownership statistics have not passed any laws.