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Shouldn’t even one occurrence of positive occurrence be enough to prove that there is no correlation at all.

If no then one can never say for sure if there is no correlation or not
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Shouldn’t even one occurrence of positive occurrence be enough to prove that there is no correlation at all.

If no then one can never say for sure if there is no correlation or not
One occurrence of positive correlation does not prove "no correlation." A consistent lack of a pattern across all observations indicates no correlation.
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I like the solution - it’s helpful.
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I did not quite understand the solution. The graphs seem to be moving in different directions for 3/7 entries, and the second entry as well moves in opposite directions. Isn't that enough to say that the correlation is negligible?
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I did not quite understand the solution. The graphs seem to be moving in different directions for 3/7 entries, and the second entry as well moves in opposite directions. Isn't that enough to say that the correlation is negligible?
There are only 5 moves (January to February, February to March, etc.), not 7. You’re mistakenly counting data points instead of movements. Out of these 5 moves, 4 show the prices moving in opposite directions, which clearly indicates a negative correlation. Correlation is determined by overall trends, not isolated points.
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Ah I see now, thanks a lot!
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I did not quite understand the solution. The graphs seem to be moving in different directions for 3/7 entries, and the second entry as well moves in opposite directions. Isn't that enough to say that the correlation is negligible?
There are only 5 moves (January to February, February to March, etc.), not 7. You’re mistakenly counting data points instead of movements. Out of these 5 moves, 4 show the prices moving in opposite directions, which clearly indicates a negative correlation. Correlation is determined by overall trends, not isolated points.
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I don’t quite agree with the solution. The graph is clearly positively correlated in feb ~ march section. You can’t simply ignore it and call it overall negatively correlated especially when the answer choice has a not correlated option. This makes no sense as if you can ignore it then a graph will never be not correlated.
If no please tell me where am I going wrong
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thisisakr
I don’t quite agree with the solution. The graph is clearly positively correlated in feb ~ march section. You can’t simply ignore it and call it overall negatively correlated especially when the answer choice has a not correlated option. This makes no sense as if you can ignore it then a graph will never be not correlated.
If no please tell me where am I going wrong

When asked about the share price correlation, we need to observe the overall general trend, not just one section. Examining the graph, we see that the lines for Company X and Company Y move in opposite directions in 4 out of 5 cases, indicating a negative correlation overall.
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I like the solution - it’s helpful.
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I don’t quite agree with the solution. For part 1, 4 out of 5 cases does not imply negative correlation cause there is still 1 remaining case. How would we know whether we want a 100% accurate answer, or one that's 80%?
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I don’t quite agree with the solution. For part 1, 4 out of 5 cases does not imply negative correlation cause there is still 1 remaining case. How would we know whether we want a 100% accurate answer, or one that's 80%?

Correlation is not about being 100% perfect, it’s about the overall trend. If in most cases (like 4 out of 5), when one line goes up the other goes down, that’s enough to call it negative correlation. It doesn’t need to happen every single time, small deviations are fine as long as the overall pattern is clear.

By the way, this has already been explained in the solution and in the discussion above.
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I like the solution - it’s helpful.
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I like the solution - it’s helpful.
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I don’t quite agree with the solution. the correlation, even though existent, is only -0.51 and is statistically insignificant
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iliagigauri
I don’t quite agree with the solution. the correlation, even though existent, is only -0.51 and is statistically insignificant
Whether it is statistically significant or not, there is a negative correlation, and that is what the question asks. Also, since correlation values range from -1 to +1, a value around -0.5 actually indicates a moderately strong negative relationship.
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a weak negative correlation can easily be interpreted by a naked eyes as no correlation since it's on the edge. no correlation doesn't only mean 0 in the range from -1 to +1, it can be +/-0.3 which stands close to the example presented in the exercise.

Bunuel

Whether it is statistically significant or not, there is a negative correlation, and that is what the question asks. Also, since correlation values range from -1 to +1, a value around -0.5 actually indicates a moderately strong negative relationship.
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iliagigauri
a weak negative correlation can easily be interpreted by a naked eyes as no correlation since it's on the edge. no correlation doesn't only mean 0 in the range from -1 to +1, it can be +/-0.3 which stands close to the example presented in the exercise.


The correlation in the question isn’t weak. It’s around -0.51, which indicates a moderate negative relationship. So I’m not sure what you’re trying to say there.
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