Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.

It appears that you are browsing the GMAT Club forum unregistered!

Signing up is free, quick, and confidential.
Join other 500,000 members and get the full benefits of GMAT Club

Registration gives you:

Tests

Take 11 tests and quizzes from GMAT Club and leading GMAT prep companies such as Manhattan GMAT,
Knewton, and others. All are free for GMAT Club members.

Applicant Stats

View detailed applicant stats such as GPA, GMAT score, work experience, location, application
status, and more

Books/Downloads

Download thousands of study notes,
question collections, GMAT Club’s
Grammar and Math books.
All are free!

Thank you for using the timer!
We noticed you are actually not timing your practice. Click the START button first next time you use the timer.
There are many benefits to timing your practice, including:

For n(n + 1) to be divisible by 3, either n is a multiple of 3, or (n + 1) is a multiple of 3.

Considering n is a multiple of 3: Between 1 to 99, the number of multiples of 3 = (99 - 3)/3 + 1 = 33 [Note: Use I substraced 3 from 99 since the smallest multiple of 3 is 3 itself]

Considering (n + 1) is a multiple of 3: Between 1 to 99, the number of multiples of 3 would be from 2-98 and would also be 33 multiples.

Thus, the probability that n(n+1) is perfectly divisible by 3 = P(n is odd) or P(n + 1 is odd) = 33/99 + 33/99 = 66/99 = 22/33 = 2/3

I am not sure of the underlying formula used here. Am I right assuming to find the number of multiples divisble (nL(last)-nF(first))/3(multiple of) +1 and I add 1 because i need to account for 3 again?

really useful to know... you add 1 as you generally underestimate by 1 at the extreme -- this evenly spaced sets formula is the basis for the simpler formula: (last-First) + 1 when you have to count out the number of elements in a consecutive sequence 1, 2, 3.... You are basically doing (last-first)/1 + 1 ---> you are basically dividing by 1 there as that is the common space b/w the elements...

Knowing that you can apply this formula for evenly spaced sets should be enough...

If 1=<n<=99, what is the probability that n(n + 1) is perfectly divisible by 3 ?

For n(n + 1) to be divisible by 3, either n is a multiple of 3, or (n + 1) is a multiple of 3.

Considering n is a multiple of 3: Between 1 to 99, the number of multiples of 3 = (99 - 3)/3 + 1 = 33 [Note: Use I substraced 3 from 99 since the smallest multiple of 3 is 3 itself]

Considering (n + 1) is a multiple of 3: Between 1 to 99, the number of multiples of 3 would be from 2-98 and would also be 33 multiples.

Thus, the probability that n(n+1) is perfectly divisible by 3 = P(n is odd) or P(n + 1 is odd) = 33/99 + 33/99 = 66/99 = 22/33 = 2/3

I am not sure of the underlying formula used here. Am I right assuming to find the number of multiples divisble (nL(last)-nF(first))/3(multiple of) +1 and I add 1 because i need to account for 3 again?

First about the multiple of x in the given range:

\(# \ of \ multiples \ of \ x \ in \ the \ range = \frac{Last \ multiple \ of \ x \ in \ the \ range \ - \ First \ multiple \ of \ x \ in \ the \ range}{x}+1\), (check this: totally-basic-94862.html?hilit=multiple%20range).

So, there will be \(\frac{99-3}{3}+1=33\) multiples of 3 in the range from 1 to 99, inclusive: 3, 6, 9, ..., 99;

n+1 to be a multiple of 3 in the range from 1 to 99, inclusive n must be 2, 5, 8, ..., 98, one less than above values, so also 33 options for n;

Hence, n(n+1) to be a multiple of 3 n can take 33+33=66 values: P=(favorable outcomes)/(total # of outcomes)=66/99=2/3.

30 second approach:

Take first 3 numbers from the given range: 1, 2, and 3 in order n(n+1) to be a multiple of 3 n can be either 2 or 3 P=2/3. For next 3 numbers the probability will be the same and as 99 equals to 3*33 (similar 33 blocks of 3) then for complete range the probability will still be 2/3.

If 1=<n<=99, what is the probability that n(n + 1) is perfectly divisible by 3 ?

For n(n + 1) to be divisible by 3, either n is a multiple of 3, or (n + 1) is a multiple of 3.

Considering n is a multiple of 3: Between 1 to 99, the number of multiples of 3 = (99 - 3)/3 + 1 = 33 [Note: Use I substraced 3 from 99 since the smallest multiple of 3 is 3 itself]

Considering (n + 1) is a multiple of 3: Between 1 to 99, the number of multiples of 3 would be from 2-98 and would also be 33 multiples.

Thus, the probability that n(n+1) is perfectly divisible by 3 = P(n is odd) or P(n + 1 is odd) = 33/99 + 33/99 = 66/99 = 22/33 = 2/3

I am not sure of the underlying formula used here. Am I right assuming to find the number of multiples divisble (nL(last)-nF(first))/3(multiple of) +1 and I add 1 because i need to account for 3 again?

First about the multiple of x in the given range:

\(# \ of \ multiples \ of \ x \ in \ the \ range = \frac{Last \ multiple \ of \ x \ in \ the \ range \ - \ First \ multiple \ of \ x \ in \ the \ range}{x}+1\), (check this: totally-basic-94862.html?hilit=multiple%20range).

So, there will be \(\frac{99-3}{3}+1=33\) multiples of 3 in the range from 1 to 99, inclusive: 3, 6, 9, ..., 99;

n+1 to be a multiple of 3 in the range from 1 to 99, inclusive n must be 2, 5, 8, ..., 98, one less than above values, so also 33 options for n;

Hence, n(n+1) to be a multiple of 3 n can take 33+33=66 values: P=(favorable outcomes)/(total # of outcomes)=66/99=2/3.

30 second approach:

Take first 3 numbers from the given range: 1, 2, and 3 in order n(n+1) to be a multiple of 3 n can be either 2 or 3 P=2/3. For next 3 numbers the probability will be the same and as 99 equals to 3*33 (similar 33 blocks of 3) then for complete range the probability will still be 2/3.

For n(n + 1) to be divisible by 3, either n is a multiple of 3, or (n + 1) is a multiple of 3.

Considering n is a multiple of 3: Between 1 to 99, the number of multiples of 3 = (99 - 3)/3 + 1 = 33 [Note: Use I substraced 3 from 99 since the smallest multiple of 3 is 3 itself]

Considering (n + 1) is a multiple of 3: Between 1 to 99, the number of multiples of 3 would be from 2-98 and would also be 33 multiples.

Thus, the probability that n(n+1) is perfectly divisible by 3 = P(n is odd) or P(n + 1 is odd) = 33/99 + 33/99 = 66/99 = 22/33 = 2/3

I am not sure of the underlying formula used here. Am I right assuming to find the number of multiples divisble (nL(last)-nF(first))/3(multiple of) +1 and I add 1 because i need to account for 3 again?

Re: If 1=<n<=99, what is the probability that n(n + 1) is perfec [#permalink]

Show Tags

09 Jul 2014, 06:29

Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
_________________

Re: If 1=<n<=99, what is the probability that n(n + 1) is perfec [#permalink]

Show Tags

22 Nov 2014, 02:19

Wow! I did this one very fast and correctly! :D (After getting a series of other questions in this type wrong)

Here is a very simple solution. For n(n+1) to be divisible by 3, either a) n must be a multiple of 3 --> Number of possibilities = 99/3 = 33 OR b) (n -1) must be a multiple of 3 --> Number of possibilities = 99/3 = 33

Now, favorable possibilities = 66 and total possibilities = 100 (100 because 99 and 1 are both included).

Re: If 1=<n<=99, what is the probability that n(n + 1) is perfec [#permalink]

Show Tags

13 Dec 2015, 14:05

Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
_________________

Re: If 1=<n<=99, what is the probability that n(n + 1) is perfec [#permalink]

Show Tags

11 Jan 2017, 12:40

Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
_________________

Re: If 1=<n<=99, what is the probability that n(n + 1) is perfec [#permalink]

Show Tags

16 Jan 2017, 17:00

mmcooley33 wrote:

If 1<n<99, what is the probability that n(n + 1) is perfectly divisible by 3 ?

We are given that an integer n is to be selected at random from 1 to 99 inclusive, and we must determine the probability that n(n+1) will be divisible by 3.

Since probability = favorable outcomes/total outcomes and we know that the total number of outcomes is 99, because there are 99 integers from 1 to 99 inclusive, we need to determine the number of values of n such that n(n+1) is divisible by 3.

First, we can determine the number of values of n that are divisible by 3, that is, the number of multiples of 3 that are between 3 and 99 inclusive. To calculate this, we can use the formula:

(Largest multiple of 3 – smallest multiple of 3)/3 + 1

(99 - 3)/3 + 1

96/3 + 1

32 + 1 = 33

Thus, there are 33 multiples of 3 between 1 and 99 inclusive. That is, the value of n can be any one of these 33 multiples of 3 so that n(n + 1) will be divisible by 3.

Similarly, if n + 1 is a multiple of 3, n(n + 1) will be also be divisible by 3. Since we know that there are 33 values of n that are multiples of 3, there must be another 33 values of n such that n + 1 is a multiple of 3. Let’s expand on this idea:

When n = 2, n + 1 = 3, and thus n(n+1) is a multiple of 3.

When n = 23, n + 1 = 24, and thus n(n+1) is a multiple of 3.

When n = 98, n + 1 = 99, and thus n(n+1) is a multiple of 3.

We can see that there are 33 values of n that are multiples of 3, and 33 more values of n for n + 1 to be multiples of 3. Thus, the probability of selecting a value of n so that n(n+1) is a multiple of 3 is:

66/99 = 2/3
_________________

Jeffrey Miller Scott Woodbury-Stewart Founder and CEO

Re: If 1=<n<=99, what is the probability that n(n + 1) is perfec [#permalink]

Show Tags

24 Jan 2017, 19:05

1) n(n+1) is divisible by 3 when either n is divisible by 3 or (n+1) is divisible by 3. 2) n is divisible by 3 in 99/3=33 cases 3) n+1 is divisible by 3 in 99/3=33 cases 4) 33+33=66 5) 66/99=2/3

gmatclubot

Re: If 1=<n<=99, what is the probability that n(n + 1) is perfec
[#permalink]
24 Jan 2017, 19:05

Campus visits play a crucial role in the MBA application process. It’s one thing to be passionate about one school but another to actually visit the campus, talk...

Its been long time coming. I have always been passionate about poetry. It’s my way of expressing my feelings and emotions. And i feel a person can convey...

Marty Cagan is founding partner of the Silicon Valley Product Group, a consulting firm that helps companies with their product strategy. Prior to that he held product roles at...

Written by Scottish historian Niall Ferguson , the book is subtitled “A Financial History of the World”. There is also a long documentary of the same name that the...