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05 Jul 2018, 21:45
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Question:
"If the supplier has signed a binding contract, he will deliver the goods."
The above question is from MGMAT's SC problem set, under "Pronouns & Verbs: Extra". It is marked as correct as is, but I do not quite understand the reasoning (there are a fair amount of indicative vs. subjunctive questions in this problem set, and I couldn't find any area where MGMAT discussed it in depth!)
I had replaced it with "If the supplier signs a binding contract he will deliver the goods", based mostly on decreasing wordiness and removing what I thought was an inappropriately placed present-perfect (maybe "if a binding contract has been signed by the supplier, the goods will be delivered" makes more sense to me). The MGMAT says this would technically be correct, although it suggests that this revision refers to a possible signing in the future.
The explanation mentions "has signed" being in the present perfect (i.e. an action in the present that is still happening) and that "will" in the second part of the clause requires the if-clause to be in the indicative mood. I take it that this is because there is no uncertainty or subjectivity in the delivery being made?
I suppose my questions are the following:
1) What dictates indicative vs. subjunctive with if...then clauses? I suppose I (erroneously thought) that if...then clauses, being conditional, were going to be subjunctive.
2) What is the material difference in the construction of a sentence if you have the indicative vs. the subjunctive, other than the verb "to be" which switches from was to were?
3) What rules govern parallelism in the if...then construction?
Can someone help me understand the general construction above, as well as any rules of thumb here? I am confused at how to treat strange tenses (e.g. the present perfect in one part and a simple future in another) on if...then statements.
"If the supplier has signed a binding contract, he will deliver the goods."
The above question is from MGMAT's SC problem set, under "Pronouns & Verbs: Extra". It is marked as correct as is, but I do not quite understand the reasoning (there are a fair amount of indicative vs. subjunctive questions in this problem set, and I couldn't find any area where MGMAT discussed it in depth!)
I had replaced it with "If the supplier signs a binding contract he will deliver the goods", based mostly on decreasing wordiness and removing what I thought was an inappropriately placed present-perfect (maybe "if a binding contract has been signed by the supplier, the goods will be delivered" makes more sense to me). The MGMAT says this would technically be correct, although it suggests that this revision refers to a possible signing in the future.
The explanation mentions "has signed" being in the present perfect (i.e. an action in the present that is still happening) and that "will" in the second part of the clause requires the if-clause to be in the indicative mood. I take it that this is because there is no uncertainty or subjectivity in the delivery being made?
I suppose my questions are the following:
1) What dictates indicative vs. subjunctive with if...then clauses? I suppose I (erroneously thought) that if...then clauses, being conditional, were going to be subjunctive.
2) What is the material difference in the construction of a sentence if you have the indicative vs. the subjunctive, other than the verb "to be" which switches from was to were?
3) What rules govern parallelism in the if...then construction?
Can someone help me understand the general construction above, as well as any rules of thumb here? I am confused at how to treat strange tenses (e.g. the present perfect in one part and a simple future in another) on if...then statements.
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Verbal Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block below for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
05 Jul 2018, 22:18
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landoro15
Hi
present perfect means the action is done in near present but its effect is still present. If shows condition so any condition in present means then clause will be in future tense. So this sentence is right
examples
If she has completed her homework she will get her marks by tomorrow
one thing in this example is clear that delivering of goods is the effect of condition "signing a contract at first place" and that signing should happen first
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Verbal Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
