Since there are n shares which cost 12,000, therefore 1 share originally costs \(\frac{12,000}{n}\)

so we need n ( total shares) to get the value per share

(1) If the price per share of the stock had been $1 more, the total price of the n shares would have been $300 more.

\((\frac{12,000}{n}+1)*n\)= 12,300 we can get n , sufficient

(2) If the price per share of the stock had been $2 less, the total price of the n shares would have been 5 percent less.

\((\frac{12,000}{n}-2)*n\)= 11685, we can get n , sufficient

Answer D

( n= 300 therefore price per share is 40 )

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- Stne