earnit
If x is not equal ±y, is
\(\frac{(x-y)}{(x+y)} > \frac{(x+y)}{(y-x)}\) ?
1)\(x>y^2\)
2)\(x^2>y>0\)
Let's simplify the inequality in the question:
\(\frac{(x-y)}{(x+y)} - \frac{(x+y)}{(y-x)}>0\)
\(\frac{(x-y)(y-x)-(x+y)(x+y)}{(x+y)(y-x)} > 0\)
\(\frac{-y^2+2xy-x^2-x^2-2xy-y^2}{(x+y)(y-x)} > 0\)
\(\frac{-2(x^2+y^2)}{(x+y)(y-x)} > 0\)
Since \(-2(x^2+y^2)<0\), the question of the problem is
\((x+y)(y-x)< 0\)?So, we just need to know the signs of \(x+y\) and \(y-x\).
(1) \(x>y^2\)
Insufficient. We don't know what is greater \(x\) or \(y\). For example:
if \(x=1, y=1/2\) the answer for the question is yes
if \(x=1/3, y=1/2\) the answer for the question is no
(2) \(x^2>y>0\)
Insufficient. We don't know what is greater \(x\) or \(y\). For example:
if \(x=1, y=1/2\) the answer for the question is yes
if \(x=2, y=3\) the answer for the question is no
(1)+(2) From the statement (1) we know that \(x>0\) and from the statement (2) \(y>0\), so \(x+y>0\).
If \(y>x\), then we have \(x^2>y>x>y^2\). But in this case \(x>1\), since \(x^2>x\) and \(y<1\), since \(y>y^2\), that is impossible since \(y>x\).
So, we have \(y-x<0\) and \(x+y>0\).
Sufficient.The correct answer is CP.S.For my opinion, it is definitely not GMAT question for its calculations.