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mitron
Hi, Can you update the difficulty level of the passage and each question, please?

Here is my opinion.

Question #1: 650-700
Question #2: 750
Question #3: 750
Question #4: 750
Question #5: 650-700
Question #6: 750-800

Overall: 750
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Can anyone provide explanation for Q.4 and Q.6?
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nayan2022
Can anyone provide explanation for Q.4 and Q.6?

Explanation

4. Which one of the following is a statement that is true of blackmail under Canadian and U.S. common law, according to passage A, but that would not have been true of blackmail in the Roman legal context, according to passage B?

Difficulty Level: 750

Explanation

B. The question asks for a difference in the way that blackmail is handled in the two systems discussed in the passages. The credited response will be supported by the text of both passages by being affirmed positively in passage A and discussed differently in passage

A. Yes. The first paragraph of each passage supports this claim. Passage A states that free speech protects a disclosure of information, and many cases protect a legal right to seek money. Passage B states that the act of blackmail was illegal depending on the harm caused by the action, not the action itself.

B. No. The description of blackmail as a triangular transaction in passage A is not inconsistent with the definition of blackmail in passage B.

C. No. Passage A indicates that prosecutors should not enforce blackmail statutes exactly as written.

D. No. This description of blackmail in passage A is consistent with the definition of blackmail in passage B.

E. No. Passage A states that there are specific laws regarding blackmail in the United States and Canada.

Answer: A
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nayan2022
Can anyone provide explanation for Q.4 and Q.6?

Explanation

6. The relationship between the ways in which Canadian and U.S. common law and classical Roman law treat blackmail, as described in the passages, is most analogous to the relationship between which one of the following pairs?

Difficulty Level: 750

Explanation

The question asks for an answer choice that shows a similar relationship as the relationship between U.S./Canadian blackmail laws and those in Classical Rome. The passages indicate that both systems have laws against blackmail but that Roman law considers government interest as an important factor when determining the legality of the action. The credited response will match this relationship.

A. No. This is inconsistent with the passages because both systems of law have regulations against blackmail.

B. No. This is inconsistent because the additional restrictions in Roman law are specific to the government interest.

C. No. This is inconsistent because the additional restrictions in Roman law are specific to the government interest.

D. Yes. This is consistent since both systems of law have restrictions and one has additional restrictions due to government interest.

E. No. This is inconsistent because the additional restrictions in Roman law are specific to the government interest.

Answer: D
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can someone please provide OE for Q5 please?
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Please provide the explanation for Q3
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Navneet290
can someone please provide OE for Q5 please?

Explanation

5. Based on what can be inferred from the passages, which one of the following acts would have been illegal under Roman law, but would not be illegal under Canadian and U.S. common law?

Difficulty Level: 650

Explanation

The question asks for a difference in the way that blackmail is handled in the two systems discussed in the passages. The credited response will be supported by the text of both passages by being referred to as legal in passage A and illegal in passage B.

A. No. Bribing tax officials is not stated to be a legal practice in passage A.

B. No. According to passage A, this act would be protected by free speech. However, passage B does not state that such a disclosure would be illegal because there is a positive cause for the privilege of revealing this information.

C. No. Providing improper testimony in court is not stated to be a legal practice in passage A.

D. No. According to passage A, this act would be protected by free speech. However, passage B does not state that such a disclosure would be illegal because there is a positive cause for the privilege of revealing this information.

E. Yes. According to passage A, this act would be protected by free speech. Passage B does state that such a disclosure would be illegal in the second paragraph because there is no positive cause for the privilege of revealing this information.

Answer: E
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Ayushi0002
Please provide the explanation for Q3

Explanation

3. Which one of the following statements is most strongly supported by information given in the passages?

Difficulty Level: 750

Explanation

The question asks for information that is supported by the text of the passages. Refer back to both passage to match the credited response.

A. Yes. The blackmail paradox, as defined in passage A, is created by free speech protections. The last paragraph of passage B indicates that no such protections existed under Classical Roman law.

B. No. There is no mention made about prevalence of blackmail in either passage.

C. No. There is no information about the number of freedoms available in the passages to make such a comparison.

D. No. The last paragraph of passage A contradicts this statement by justifiying the illegality of blackmail through the improper use of a third party.

E. No. Passage B mentions that the interests of public authorities were relevant in Roman law.

Answer: A
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GMATNinja

Why is option E wrong? The option states that Americans did not consider public interests in information, whereas Romans did. That is also stated by the passage.
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Ayushi0002
Please provide the explanation for Q3

Explanation

3. Which one of the following statements is most strongly supported by information given in the passages?

Difficulty Level: 750

Explanation

The question asks for information that is supported by the text of the passages. Refer back to both passage to match the credited response.

A. Yes. The blackmail paradox, as defined in passage A, is created by free speech protections. The last paragraph of passage B indicates that no such protections existed under Classical Roman law.

B. No. There is no mention made about prevalence of blackmail in either passage.

C. No. There is no information about the number of freedoms available in the passages to make such a comparison.

D. No. The last paragraph of passage A contradicts this statement by justifiying the illegality of blackmail through the improper use of a third party.

E. No. Passage B mentions that the interests of public authorities were relevant in Roman law.

Answer: A
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Sajjad1994 Hi Can you give the OE for Q 2? Thank you.
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Sajjad1994 Hi Can you give the OE for Q 2? Thank you.

Explanation

2. In using the phrase “the state’s chip” (line 30), the author of passage A most clearly means to refer to a government’s

Explanation

The question asks about the phrase “the state’s chip.” The sentence preceding this phrase provides the appropriate context. “The state’s chip” is the government’s interest in catching the criminal, which the blackmailer is using to leverage payment.

A. No. The blackmailer wants to “turn in” the criminal for a crime already committed, so the blackmailer is not determining which actions are crimes.

B. Yes. The blackmailer is threatening to “turn in” the criminal, which is the state’s interest in learning about crime.

C. No. The blackmailer wants to “turn in” the criminal for a crime already committed, so the blackmailer is not preventing a crime.

D. No. There is no indication that the government exclusively relies on private citizens.

E. No. The blackmailer wants to “turn in” the criminal for a crime already committed, so the blackmailer is not compelled to testify about a crime.

Answer: B
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GMATNinja

Hello! If possible, could you please explain the logic behind Q6?

I had selected E initially. Now I can see why D might be the answer, but I still can't write off E as an option.

Here's my thinking for why D can't be eliminated.

In the country where it's illegal for anyone except the police and military to own guns (Country B), the law is similar to the Classical Roman Law (CRL) because CRL says that blackmail is allowed if it's for the greater good. If guns are owned by the police and military, that helps the country, it creates some sort of greater good.

Still not sure why making it illegal for felons to own guns in Country A is analogous to the blackmail laws of US and Canada.

Please help me understand why E should be eliminated and how, in option D, country A is analogous.

Thanks!
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mvgkannan
Sajjad1994 Hi Can you give the OE for Q 2? Thank you.

Explanation

2. In using the phrase “the state’s chip” (line 30), the author of passage A most clearly means to refer to a government’s

Explanation

The question asks about the phrase “the state’s chip.” The sentence preceding this phrase provides the appropriate context. “The state’s chip” is the government’s interest in catching the criminal, which the blackmailer is using to leverage payment.

A. No. The blackmailer wants to “turn in” the criminal for a crime already committed, so the blackmailer is not determining which actions are crimes.

B. Yes. The blackmailer is threatening to “turn in” the criminal, which is the state’s interest in learning about crime.

C. No. The blackmailer wants to “turn in” the criminal for a crime already committed, so the blackmailer is not preventing a crime.

D. No. There is no indication that the government exclusively relies on private citizens.

E. No. The blackmailer wants to “turn in” the criminal for a crime already committed, so the blackmailer is not compelled to testify about a crime.

Answer: B
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Question 6


GMAT2point0
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Hello! If possible, could you please explain the logic behind Q6?

I had selected E initially. Now I can see why D might be the answer, but I still can't write off E as an option.

Here's my thinking for why D can't be eliminated.

In the country where it's illegal for anyone except the police and military to own guns (Country B), the law is similar to the Classical Roman Law (CRL) because CRL says that blackmail is allowed if it's for the greater good. If guns are owned by the police and military, that helps the country, it creates some sort of greater good.

Still not sure why making it illegal for felons to own guns in Country A is analogous to the blackmail laws of US and Canada.

Please help me understand why E should be eliminated and how, in option D, country A is analogous.

Thanks!
Yeah, this is a weird one.

I look at like this: blackmail is illegal for everyone in the US and Canada. For the Romans, it was illegal if it hurt someone, but legal if it didn’t or was in the interest of society in general. So US/Canada: always illegal. Rome: legal if beneficial (or at least not harmful).

(D) looks good, in the sense that it's always illegal to own guns in country A, while it's sometimes legal in country B -- society presumably benefits by allowing the military and police to be armed.

(E) is close, but it's a little off because 1) everyone in country B can own a motorcycle, as opposed to only when owning a motorcycle provides a benefit, and 2) even though it's legal for everyone to own a motorcycle, there's still a cost associated with it. Not really consistent with how the Romans saw blackmail, which, if it wasn't harmful, wasn't punished at all. So (D) is a little bit better.

I hope that helps!
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