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Question Stats:
54% (01:23) correct 46% (01:37) wrong based on 186 sessions
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1000 dollars were converted into pounds and then the pounds were converted back into dollars at the same exchange rate of \(x\) pounds per dollar. If a commission of \(y\%\) is levied on any exchange operation, what dollar amount was left after the exchanges? (1) \(x = 0.6\) (2) \(y = 5\)
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16 Sep 2014, 01:05
Official Solution:Whatever the value of \(x\), the first exchange turned 1000 dollars into the equivalent of \(1000(1  \frac{y}{100})\) dollars. This amount, in turn, became \(1000(1  \frac{y}{100})^2\) dollars after the second exchange. To answer the question we need to know the value of \(y\). Statement (1) by itself is insufficient. S1 tells us the value of\(x\), not \(y\). Statement (2) by itself is sufficient. S2 tells us the value of \(y\). Answer: B
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18 Dec 2015, 02:11
HI BRUNEL
CAN U PLS ELABORATE THE LOGIC BEHIND
1000(1−y/100) dollars



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26 May 2016, 02:32
sidagar wrote: HI BRUNEL
CAN U PLS ELABORATE THE LOGIC BEHIND
1000(1−y/100) dollars sidagar: the question said y% means y% = y/100. Also, final value you receive after exchange = begin  commission (on begin value) = 1000  1000*y% = 1000 (1y%) = 1000(1y/100). Cheers.
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20 Aug 2016, 04:56
I think this is a highquality question and I agree with explanation.



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10 Oct 2016, 07:42
I think this is a highquality question and the explanation isn't clear enough, please elaborate. I agree with the impact of Y on exchange but what about x, once the exchange operation is done what about the loss through exchange rate, I believe that should also be converted.



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Re: M1913
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04 Nov 2016, 02:37
chetanyasahu1 wrote: I think this is a highquality question and the explanation isn't clear enough, please elaborate. I agree with the impact of Y on exchange but what about x, once the exchange operation is done what about the loss through exchange rate, I believe that should also be converted. CASE #1 Exchange Rate X = 0.6 (£0.6 = $1) • $1000 > £600 • () Commission 5% £570 • £570> $950 • () Commisson 5% $902.5 CASE #2 Exchange Rate X = 2 (£2 = $1) • $1000 > $2000 • () Commission 5% > £1900 • £1900 > $950 • () Commisson 5% > $902.5 SO, exchange rate does not matter.



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09 Aug 2017, 08:46
neither of these two answers are logic and do not answer the question. The question was how much dollars you have after two exchanges. These two answers are more like conditions of task.



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Re: M1913
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09 Aug 2017, 09:47
+1 for option B. We need value of "y". Only option B gives us the amount of dollars to be paid. The answer is B.
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10 Aug 2017, 05:18
sidagar wrote: HI BRUNEL
CAN U PLS ELABORATE THE LOGIC BEHIND
1000(1−y/100) dollars Hi, Its simple math.. 1000y% of 1000 = 1000  \(\frac{y}{100}*1000\) is what would remain for conversion to pounds. Hope this answers your question.



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17 Aug 2017, 22:52
Bunuel wrote: Official Solution:
Whatever the value of \(x\), the first exchange turned 1000 dollars into the equivalent of \(1000(1  \frac{y}{100})\) dollars. This amount, in turn, became \(1000(1  \frac{y}{100})^2\) dollars after the second exchange. To answer the question we need to know the value of \(y\). Statement (1) by itself is insufficient. S1 tells us the value of\(x\), not \(y\). Statement (2) by itself is sufficient. S2 tells us the value of \(y\).
Answer: B Adding to bunuel's solution exchange rate X must be equal to a fraction i.e. [pound][/dollar] or [p][/d] . Now after first conversion the amount would be = \(1000(1  \frac{y}{100})\) . [p][/d] Now when we convert again the pound to dollar the fraction would be inverted to [d[/p] and the new dollar value that would be remaining = \(1000(1  \frac{y}{100})^2\) . [p][/d] . [d[/p] = \(1000(1  \frac{y}{100})^2\) => the Answer is B, as we just need to know the value of Y .



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Re: M1913
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08 Nov 2017, 11:03
i am still confused on y% of what. When converting from dollar to pound then y% of dollar and when from pound to dollar then y% of pound.
Please confirm if my understanding is correct



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02 May 2018, 05:03
question doesn't says that commission is charged on dollars or pound. confused.



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12 May 2018, 14:44
I think this is a highquality question and the explanation isn't clear enough, please elaborate.
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09 Jun 2018, 06:56
I just used logic here. For example, say we have $1000 dollars and the exchange rate of dollars to pounds is 1/3, then $1000 dollars gives us 3000 pounds. The exchange rate remains the same, thus 3000 pounds at 1/3 is still $1000 dollars. Thus, we only need to find Y to get the actual amount.
Please correct me if I am wrong.



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06 Sep 2018, 07:05
Hi,
I understand that the commission(y) needs to be deducted from the amount so converted. But the question asks us to find the amount left after deducting the commission. In that case, isn't the value of x i.e the exchange rate important? Only after knowing the value of x will we be able to find the remaining amount.
Please clarify.



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Re: M1913
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05 Nov 2018, 08:30
Megha1119 wrote: Hi,
I understand that the commission(y) needs to be deducted from the amount so converted. But the question asks us to find the amount left after deducting the commission. In that case, isn't the value of x i.e the exchange rate important? Only after knowing the value of x will we be able to find the remaining amount.
Please clarify. No.I think a unit is converted into from pound to dollar and then from dollar to pound..doesnt matter how many dollar is equal to how many pounds..because the value will change and the unit will get back to original value..



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Bunuel wrote: Official Solution:
Whatever the value of \(x\), the first exchange turned 1000 dollars into the equivalent of \(1000(1  \frac{y}{100})\) dollars. This amount, in turn, became \(1000(1  \frac{y}{100})^2\) dollars after the second exchange. To answer the question we need to know the value of \(y\). Statement (1) by itself is insufficient. S1 tells us the value of\(x\), not \(y\). Statement (2) by itself is sufficient. S2 tells us the value of \(y\).
Answer: B Hi BunuelInstead of calculating exchange difference at the first exchange and then the second exchange, can we approach the Q in the following manner instead??? exchange rate => £x = $1 first exchange with y% commission = $1000 = £1000x(y/100) = £10xy second exchange with y% commission = (10xy/x)(y/100) = $ y^2/10 Q is asking what dollar amount was left after the exchanges? Hence, we need to know value of y.



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XylanSorry to bother you again! Instead of calculating exchange difference at the first exchange and then at the second exchange, can we approach the Q in the following manner instead??? exchange rate => £x = $1 first exchange with y% commission = $1000 = £1000x(y/100) = £10xy second exchange with y% commission = (10xy/x)(y/100) = $ y^2/10 Q is asking what dollar amount was left after the exchanges? Hence, we need to know value of y. Does this make sense ??



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30 Mar 2019, 12:28
JIAA wrote: XylanSorry to bother you again! Instead of calculating exchange difference at the first exchange and then at the second exchange, can we approach the Q in the following manner instead??? exchange rate => £x = $1 first exchange with y% commission = $1000 = £1000x(y/100) = £10xy second exchange with y% commission = (10xy/x)(y/100) = $ y^2/10 Q is asking what dollar amount was left after the exchanges? Hence, we need to know value of y. Does this make sense ?? JIAA It's a beautiful Question, attacking the conscience of the test taker who is in a hurry. Few things to keep in mind:Correctly inferred from the Qstatement: exchange rate =>
If a commission of \(y\)% is levied on any exchange operation, then the remaining amount(amount that is left after the commissioncost) should be \(Amount*(1  y/100)\) 1st exchange with y% commission with starting amount:$ \(1000\) leads to> £ \(1000*(1  y/100)*x\) 2nd exchange with y% commission with starting amount: £ \(1000*(1  y/100)*x\) leads to> $ \(1000*(1  y/100)^2\): the value of x cancels out Since the value of X cancels out, only Y's value is required to answer the Q.
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