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For example: if A is population of 15-24, the respective population of other age groups are B,C,D,E,F.
So the total population of house owners are A+B+C+D+E+F.
The lowest percentage of houseowners with debt is for F which is 2.5% of F.
The highest percentage is for C which is 55% of C.
The percentage value of houseowners with debt is also ~ (A*0.2+B*0.45+C*0.55+D*0.45+E*0.25+F(0.025) / A+B+C+D+E+F )*100

Hence, irrespective of actual values of A through F, % of debt houseowners will lie between 2.5% - 55%
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The attached graph displays the percent of Australian households with owner-occupier household debt for the years of 1993-94 and 2003-04, broken down by the age group of the debtholder. Based on the graph, please answer the questions that follow.

We are not aware of the number of people in each age bracket, so to get the possible range, we will maximize the extreme ends
Upper range: The highest % is in age bracket 35-44 yrs, so we take almost the entire of population to be in this bracket. Hence, the max % can go above 55%.
Lower range: The lowest % is in age bracket 65+ yrs, so we take almost the entire of population to be in this bracket. Hence, the min % can go below 2.5%.
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We need to find the weighted average where weights are the number of people which different age groups. Since, we do not know that weights we cannot find the weighted average but we can say that the weighted average must be between min and max percentages. Hence, it must be between 2.5% and 55%
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Hi Moderator sir, pls help with the explanation for this piece. I am rather confused with how could we logically conclude the %
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Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

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