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1) Individuals with grey eyes approximately comprise 4% of the individuals as the numeric value of grey is less than 50. therefore, 50/1000*100 = 5% but as grey is less than 50, the percentage of the number of people with grey also has to less than 5%, so the only option that suffices is Option B.
2) The revised value of blue is 75, which is a decrease of 15. therefore, \(\frac{-15}{90}\)*100 = -16.67% approximately. Therefore, the answer is C.
3) the number of people with brown eyes are 440, the number of people with grey eyes are 40. Therefore, the difference is 440-40=400.
Therefore the answer is D.
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­The question 1 is tricky. We need to look that the bar is at around 40 (as the total is 50 so each split would be around 10) and not 48. 
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Q 1 is correct. However, Q 2, although all the above members have found the correct answer, I believe it is too close for a clear cut answer.

The bar of blue is nt exactly between 50 and 100. It is slightly less than the mid point 75. Thus, it could be anywhere from 70 to 72. A decrease of 18 to 20 from 90 is almost 20-21%, ans to make matter worse, there is an option which says 20% decrease.
Those who are taking the bar to be 75 and not 72 are also finding 16.67% in the answer.

A poor quality question with a wrong OA. Better to be archived.
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Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

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