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Bunuel
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I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation.
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I got this problem right, but it took me 3 mins.
I plugged in different values of a and b: a=1, 4, 7, 10, .. then b= 20, 19, 18, 17, .. but it was lengthy and tiresome.

The explanation by Bunuel is just awesome. Such a time saver, but it needs an eye of a mathematician I think.

Thanks.
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I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation.
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Hey Bunuel

This is my first post!

Could you please explain how did we reach the conclusion that a and b are also don't share any common factor? I understand that 5a and b don't share any.
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Hey Bunuel

This is my first post!

Could you please explain how did we reach the conclusion that a and b are also don't share any common factor? I understand that 5a and b don't share any.

Let me ask you, if 5a and b don't share any common factor apart from 1, could a and be share any common factor apart from 1? If a and be share any common factor apart from 1, won't 5a and b also share any common factor apart from 1?
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I have edited the question and the solution by adding more details to enhance its clarity. I hope it is now easier to understand.
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Extremely difficult, indeed
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Bunuel
Official Solution:


If \(a\) and \(b\) are positive integers, what is the greatest common divisor of \(a\) and \(b\)?

It's important to note that two statements together are obviously sufficient to answer the question. When encountering such a question, be extremely cautious when choosing C as an answer. There's a high likelihood that the question is a "C trap" question ("C trap" refers to a problem that is VERY OBVIOUSLY sufficient if both statements are taken together).

(1) \(a + 3b = 61\).

Let the greatest common divisor of \(a\) and \(b\) be \(d\), then \(a=md\) and \(b=nd\), for some positive integers \(m\) and \(n\). So, we'll have \((md)+3(nd)=d(m+3n)=61\). Now, since 61 is a prime number (61=1*61), then \(d=1\) and \(m+3n=61\) (vice versa is not possible because \(m\) and \(n\) are positive integers and therefore \(m+3n\) cannot equal 1). Hence we have that the \(GCD(x, y)=d=1\). Sufficient.

(2) \(5a - b = 1\). Rearrange: \(5a=b+1\).

\(5a\) and \(b\) are consecutive integers. Two consecutive integers are co-prime, which means that they don't share ANY common factor but 1 (for example, 20 and 21 are consecutive integers, thus the only common factor they share is 1). So, \(5a\) and \(b\) don't share any common factor but 1, thus \(a\) and \(b\) also don't share any common factor but 1. Hence, the \(GCD(x, y)\) is 1. Sufficient.


Answer: D

Hi Bunuel, 5a, b are co-prime, but how did we come to this " a, b are coprime too"? This is the logic right used right ?, Eg- 4a,b are coprime then a,b are coprime too, but if a,b are coprime then 4a,b can be or can't be prime(will depend upon a,b)
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rickyric395
Bunuel
Official Solution:


If \(a\) and \(b\) are positive integers, what is the greatest common divisor of \(a\) and \(b\)?

It's important to note that two statements together are obviously sufficient to answer the question. When encountering such a question, be extremely cautious when choosing C as an answer. There's a high likelihood that the question is a "C trap" question ("C trap" refers to a problem that is VERY OBVIOUSLY sufficient if both statements are taken together).

(1) \(a + 3b = 61\).

Let the greatest common divisor of \(a\) and \(b\) be \(d\), then \(a=md\) and \(b=nd\), for some positive integers \(m\) and \(n\). So, we'll have \((md)+3(nd)=d(m+3n)=61\). Now, since 61 is a prime number (61=1*61), then \(d=1\) and \(m+3n=61\) (vice versa is not possible because \(m\) and \(n\) are positive integers and therefore \(m+3n\) cannot equal 1). Hence we have that the \(GCD(x, y)=d=1\). Sufficient.

(2) \(5a - b = 1\). Rearrange: \(5a=b+1\).

\(5a\) and \(b\) are consecutive integers. Two consecutive integers are co-prime, which means that they don't share ANY common factor but 1 (for example, 20 and 21 are consecutive integers, thus the only common factor they share is 1). So, \(5a\) and \(b\) don't share any common factor but 1, thus \(a\) and \(b\) also don't share any common factor but 1. Hence, the \(GCD(x, y)\) is 1. Sufficient.


Answer: D

Hi Bunuel, 5a, b are co-prime, but how did we come to this " a, b are coprime too"? This is the logic right used right ?, Eg- 4a,b are coprime then a,b are coprime too, but if a,b are coprime then 4a,b can be or can't be prime(will depend upon a,b)

I tried explaining this in this post.

To answer your other question: yes, if 4a and b are co-prime, then a and b must also be co-prime. After all, if a and b had a common factor greater than 1, then 4a and b would inevitably share that factor as well. Conversely, just because a and b are co-prime, it doesn't necessarily mean that 4a and b are co-prime. For example, consider a = 3 and b = 2.

I hope this helps.
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Bunuel
rickyric395
Bunuel
Official Solution:


If \(a\) and \(b\) are positive integers, what is the greatest common divisor of \(a\) and \(b\)?

It's important to note that two statements together are obviously sufficient to answer the question. When encountering such a question, be extremely cautious when choosing C as an answer. There's a high likelihood that the question is a "C trap" question ("C trap" refers to a problem that is VERY OBVIOUSLY sufficient if both statements are taken together).

(1) \(a + 3b = 61\).

Let the greatest common divisor of \(a\) and \(b\) be \(d\), then \(a=md\) and \(b=nd\), for some positive integers \(m\) and \(n\). So, we'll have \((md)+3(nd)=d(m+3n)=61\). Now, since 61 is a prime number (61=1*61), then \(d=1\) and \(m+3n=61\) (vice versa is not possible because \(m\) and \(n\) are positive integers and therefore \(m+3n\) cannot equal 1). Hence we have that the \(GCD(x, y)=d=1\). Sufficient.

(2) \(5a - b = 1\). Rearrange: \(5a=b+1\).

\(5a\) and \(b\) are consecutive integers. Two consecutive integers are co-prime, which means that they don't share ANY common factor but 1 (for example, 20 and 21 are consecutive integers, thus the only common factor they share is 1). So, \(5a\) and \(b\) don't share any common factor but 1, thus \(a\) and \(b\) also don't share any common factor but 1. Hence, the \(GCD(x, y)\) is 1. Sufficient.


Answer: D

Hi Bunuel, 5a, b are co-prime, but how did we come to this " a, b are coprime too"? This is the logic right used right ?, Eg- 4a,b are coprime then a,b are coprime too, but if a,b are coprime then 4a,b can be or can't be prime(will depend upon a,b)

I tried explaining this in this post.

To answer your other question: yes, if 4a and b are co-prime, then a and b must also be co-prime. After all, if a and b had a common factor greater than 1, then 4a and b would inevitably share that factor as well. Conversely, just because a and b are co-prime, it doesn't necessarily mean that 4a and b are co-prime. For example, consider a = 3 and b = 2.

I hope this helps.

Thanks Bunuel, your explanations always helps.
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