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Bunuel
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I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation. This passage has a section in bold when the question does not refer to bold lines.
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How does a more generous view imply that the author agrees with it more? It simply means that the view is more liberal
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I don't think this passage suggests that Home signing and French signing were equally important. It was maybe 70-30 (French-Home). Clerc based the whole thing on French signing. Sure the passage says that it took several years to reach equilibrium between the local Home signing and Clerc's French signing, but that isn't the same thing as being equally important.

darthvad3r Good attention to detail. Kudos! Comparisons that aren't fully justified from the passage are a common "Extreme" trap on official questions.
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darthvad3r
I don't think this passage suggests that Home signing and French signing were equally important. It was maybe 70-30 (French-Home). Clerc based the whole thing on French signing. Sure the passage says that it took several years to reach equilibrium between the local Home signing and Clerc's French signing, but that isn't the same thing as being equally important.

darthvad3r Good attention to detail. Kudos! Comparisons that aren't fully justified from the passage are a common "Extreme" trap on official questions.

I had the same doubt.
So... is this question "broken"?
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But in the last paragraph...the passage says "...the mixture of French Sign Language with Home Sign had reached equilibrium and was taught in other institutions...". I think the word equilibrium does suggest that became equally important. That is how I answered the question.
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I think this is a poor-quality question and I don't agree with the explanation. equilibrium and being equally important aren't the same thing. Equilibrium doesn't have to be in the middle--its just in a stasis
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Quote:
2. It can be inferred from the passage that American Sign Language borrowed liberally from French Sign Language for which of the following reasons?
I got this question in my GMAT Club practice test and got it wrong. During review, I discovered why C is a better option choice than D.

The passage states that:
Quote:
Clerc had been an instructor at the premiere educational institution for the deaf in France, where a standardized system of signs had been in use in for nearly a century. The language Clerc developed for the school was based heavily on the French Sign Language with which he, being deaf, routinely communicated.
This tells us the following things:
1. French sign language was already standardized long before Clerc had actually developed the American sign language
2. The language Clerc developed (the American sign language) was based heavily on the French Sign Language

Option C states that because Clerc, one of the co-founders, was already familiar with French Sign Language which was already standardized. This is exactly what the passage states. Now let's address the confusion. The passage in the next few lines states:
Quote:
At the school, French Sign Language mingled with various and idiosyncratic “home signs” brought into the classroom by students from Martha’s Vineyard, an island off Massachusetts where there were an unusually large number of deaf children. Within only a few years, the mixture of French Sign Language with Home Sign had reached equilibrium and was taught in other institutions for the deaf as American Sign Language.
What does this tell us? It tells us that the French Sign Language was made using the "Home sign language". However, it doesn't tell us to what extent, so assuming that Home Sign language contributed 50% to the American Sign Language would not be accurate. The last line about attaining equilibrium between the two only tells us how their combination was taught in institutes as American Sign Language was balanced. "Balanced" means equilibrium, and it doesn't necessarily mean 50-50. We can say that for American Sign Language to be standardized, elements from Home Sign Language as well as French Sign Language need to be added. We don't know if that needs to be 50-50. Maybe you need fewer elements from one and more from another.

Also, the passage indicates that French Sign Language and the "home signs" from Martha's Vineyard were different systems that merged, not that they were equally expressive.

Hence, C is the correct answer and D is incorrect
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I don’t quite agree with the solution. Option D says that American sign language was first standardized sign language which is way too extreme. It is one of the first standradized language (not first). bb please respond to my query.
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I don’t quite agree with the solution. Option D says that American sign language was first standardized sign language which is way too extreme. It is one of the first standradized language (not first). bb please respond to my query.

Hi. I don’t think that it’s the first language that was standardized, it says it was a language that was first standardized and then disseminated. It’s a subtle but important difference
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I don’t quite agree with the solution. nothing indicates that the languages are equally important, quite the opposite. Sure they mingle and reach equilibrium, but it does not mean that they are of equal importance. It just means that it stops evolving. However, the fact that the language was BASED off French Sign Language, and that some home signs were added to it, suggest that FSL was actually more important to ASL than Home Sign was
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Hi,

[*](a) Too strong - nothing says Gallaudet could not have founded a school without Clerc.
[*](c) Unsupported comparison - no claim that ASL surpassed French Sign Language.
[*](d) "Inevitable" is far too strong and unsupported.
[*](e) Contradicted - Home Sign already existed before French Sign Language entered the classroom.

(B) is correct because: The passage says ASL developed from a mixture of French Sign Language and Home Sign. It also states that this mixture "reached equilibrium" and became ASL. Further, the author never ranks one as more important than the other.
[*]Hope this helps!


yasbenje
I don’t quite agree with the solution. nothing indicates that the languages are equally important, quite the opposite. Sure they mingle and reach equilibrium, but it does not mean that they are of equal importance. It just means that it stops evolving. However, the fact that the language was BASED off French Sign Language, and that some home signs were added to it, suggest that FSL was actually more important to ASL than Home Sign was
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Bunuel Can you explain why the answer to Q4 is not A?

(a) Gallaudet would have been unable to found a school for the deaf without Clerc’s assistance.

I picked this because it's evident that Clerc was an essential factor for the standardization and dissemination of ASL. Gallaudet is mentioned only in that he " recruited Frenchman Laurent Clerc to co-found what is now the American School for the Deaf in Hartford, Connecticut.". The mention of co-founding and Clerc' experience and further role seemed sufficient to consider that the school could not be founded without his assistance.
I understand the argument that Gallaudet could have found someone else perhaps with Clerc's expertise to found the school and hence Clerc himself isn't necessary but the points above show that he was integral to the process.

What am I missing?
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parthk24 let me try to help. The problem with option A is that it cannot be supported from the passage; nothing can be said with certainty about whether he would have been able to find it or not. Also, the question stem is considered to be the inference type; hence, A can't be correct because of the non-availability of sufficient data.

Hope this helps
parthk24
Bunuel Can you explain why the answer to Q4 is not A?

(a) Gallaudet would have been unable to found a school for the deaf without Clerc’s assistance.

I picked this because it's evident that Clerc was an essential factor for the standardization and dissemination of ASL. Gallaudet is mentioned only in that he " recruited Frenchman Laurent Clerc to co-found what is now the American School for the Deaf in Hartford, Connecticut.". The mention of co-founding and Clerc' experience and further role seemed sufficient to consider that the school could not be founded without his assistance.
I understand the argument that Gallaudet could have found someone else perhaps with Clerc's expertise to found the school and hence Clerc himself isn't necessary but the points above show that he was integral to the process.

What am I missing?
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