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When you try to solve statement 1 algebraically you get \(x-y=5\). Shouldn't statement 1 be sufficient?

\(x*y = y(y + 5)\)
\(x=\frac{y(y + 5)}{y}\)
\(x=y+5\)
\(x-y=5\)
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Casey1985
x - y = 5?

(1) x*y = y(y + 5)
(2) xy ≠ 0

1) x*y = y (y+5) or, x = y + 5. so x - y = 5 . apparently it seems true but if x and y are both 0, then this statement holds true but in that case x - y =0. so not sufficient.

2) it denotes neither x nor y is 0. but it is not sufficient to prove x - y = 5.

together, x and y are non-zero numbers, so x - y = 5. sufficient

C is the answer.
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Casey1985
x - y = 5?

(1) x*y = y(y + 5)
(2) xy ≠ 0

Nice question!

St 2 is clearly insufficient.

St 1, if y = 0 and x = 5 then the ans is yes; however if y = 0 and x = 10 then the ans is "no". St 1 is insufficient

Combining 1 and 2 gives a clear answer yes.

Option C is the correct answer.
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Casey1985
x - y = 5?

(1) x*y = y(y + 5)
(2) xy ≠ 0

The question asks whether \(5+y-x = 0\)?

Statement (1):
\(x*y = y(y + 5)\)
\(0 = y(y+5-x)\)
Means, that either 0 or (y+5-x) or both of them are equal to zero.
Not Sufficient.

Statement (2):
x as well as y is not equal to zero. Does not help much for the equation in the question stem.
Not sufficient.

Combined:
Since we now from (2) that x and y are not zero, Statement (1) actually tells us that \((y+5-x)\) has to be equal to zero. This answers the question.
Sufficient.
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why can't we just divide both sides by Y? Do we really care about the sign here since it is a number divided by itself (so will always equal to 1)
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ChairmanThe
why can't we just divide both sides by Y? Do we really care about the sign here since it is a number divided by itself (so will always equal to 1)

You cannot reduce x*y = y(y + 5) by y because y can be 0 and we cannot divide by 0. By doing so you loose a root (a possible solution), namely y = 0.

Never reduce equation by variable (or expression with variable), if you are not certain that variable (or expression with variable) doesn't equal to zero. We cannot divide by zero.
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