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Bunuel
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For 1 st drop down. The question is how many times Combined rular area is larger than Pasture area (WA) not how many times Combined area is of
Pasture area.

The answer would be 3 times not 4 times larger. Please clarify
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From Bunuel's Explanation:

Quote:

Assuming the combined rural area of Pennsylvania (PA) and Virginia (VA) was 100 \(unit^2\) in 1982, the pasture area in West Virginia (WV) would be 50 \(unit^2\) in the same year. From the graph, we see that the rural areas of both Pennsylvania (PA) and Virginia (VA) increased by 40%, so in 1997, the combined rural area would become 140 \(unit^2\). Meanwhile, the pasture area in West Virginia (WV) decreased by 25%, reducing it to 37.5 \(unit^2\). Therefore, in 1997, the combined rural area of Pennsylvania (PA) and Virginia (VA) was \(\frac{140}{37.5} \approx 4\) times larger than the pasture area in West Virginia.

PawanGMAT25
For 1 st drop down. The question is how many times Combined rular area is larger than Pasture area (WA) not how many times Combined area is of
Pasture area.

The answer would be 3 times not 4 times larger. Please clarify
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For the first drop down as the question says _____ times larger than .... should not it be 102.5/37.5 ?
Bunuel


Official Solution:


Drop-down 1:

Assuming the combined rural area of Pennsylvania (PA) and Virginia (VA) was 100 \(unit^2\) in 1982, the pasture area in West Virginia (WV) would be 50 \(unit^2\) in the same year. From the graph, we see that the rural areas of both Pennsylvania (PA) and Virginia (VA) increased by 40%, so in 1997, the combined rural area would become 140 \(unit^2\). Meanwhile, the pasture area in West Virginia (WV) decreased by 25%, reducing it to 37.5 \(unit^2\). Therefore, in 1997, the combined rural area of Pennsylvania (PA) and Virginia (VA) was \(\frac{140}{37.5} \approx 4\) times larger than the pasture area in West Virginia.

Drop-down 2:

Delaware's cropland decreased by 35% from 1982 to 1997, so 380,000 acres of cropland in 1997 implies that in 1982 it was \(\frac{380,000}{0.65} \approx 585,000\) acres. During the same period, Maryland's (MD) cropland decreased by 10%, so 500,000 acres of cropland in 1997 implies that in 1982 it was \(\frac{500,000}{0.90} \approx 555,000\) acres. Therefore, in 1982, Delaware had approximately 30,000 acres more cropland than Maryland.


Correct answer:

Dropdown 1: "4"

Dropdown 2: "30,000 acres more"
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SimantaSourav
For the first drop down as the question says _____ times larger than .... should not it be 102.5/37.5 ?

No. 102.5 is the difference between the two areas. To compare how many times larger one area is, use 140/37.5 ≈ 4.


Here is my post from another topic addressing this issue:

Agree that it's confusing but check below:

Merriam Webster's Dictionary of English Usage:



The argument in this case is that times more (or times larger, times stronger, times brighter, etc.) is ambiguous, so that "He has five times more money than you" can be misunderstood as meaning "He has six times as much money as you." It is, in fact, possible to misunderstand times more in this way, but it takes a good deal of effort. If you have $100, five times that is $500, which means that "five times more than $100" can mean (the commentators claim) "$500 more than $100," which equals "$600," which equals "six times as much as $100." The commentators regard this as a serious ambiguity, and they advise you to avoid it by always saying "times as much" instead of "times more." Here again, it seems that they are paying homage to mathematics at the expense of language. The fact is that "five times more" and "five times as much" are idiomatic phrases which have - and are understood to have - exactly the same meaning.

The "ambiguity" of times more is imaginary: in the world of actual speech and writing, the meaning of times more is clear and unequivocal. It is an idiom that has existed in our language for more than four centuries, and there is no real reason to avoid its use.



More on this here.

Also, check the following posts by Ianstewart:

Quote:
IanStewart


There seems to be some confusion about this earlier in this thread. The phrase "X is 2 times greater than Y" simply means that X = 2Y. It's understandable that this might seem confusing, because if instead we say "X is 200% greater than Y" we definitely mean that X = 3Y, but this all boils down to idiomatic usage in English. If you think of smaller numbers, it might be clear this is how the phrase is used in the language (there's a reason you've never heard anyone say "X is 1 times greater than Y" to mean that X is twice as big as Y), and it's also what the dictionary says, as quoted at this link:

https://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/61774.html
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