Hi rockstar09rulez,Great question, and it's the same worry Precision raised earlier in the thread. The short answer: no, the direction of the answer would not flip just because the comparison period changes.
Here's the key idea. The blank describes what happened
in the period immediately following the late-1940s recession - and that period, on its own, shows the blue line plunging from roughly
8% down to about
3%. That is a decrease, full stop. The drop is baked into the late-1940s data itself; no comparison year can turn that fall into a rise.
So what is the "compared with the early 1990s" clause doing? It's only setting a yardstick for the word
steep. After the early-1990s recession, the line eases down slowly and modestly. Against that gentle slope, the late-1940s plunge clearly counts as
steep. KarishmaB made exactly this point upthread: "compared to the period after the recession in mid-1970s, the period after the 1940s saw a steeper decline." Swap in almost any other recovery period and the late-1940s drop still reads as the steep one, because it's about the sharpest declines on the whole graph.
When
could the answer change? Only if you compared it against a period with an even sharper fall - then "steep" would lose its punch. But it would never become "a steep increase," because the 1940s segment never increases.
Quick rehearsal with round numbers: say the 1940s period falls
8 -
3 (a drop of
5) while the comparison period falls
6 -
5 (a drop of
1). The 1940s period is still the decrease, and still the steep one. Change the comparison to
6 -
4 - the 1940s is
still the steeper drop. The direction is fixed by the 1940s line; the comparison only ranks how steep.
rockstar09rulez
Would the answer for second dropdown change if it's compared with any period other than the recession ending in early 1990s?