varotkorn
Why the correct answer isn't choice B.?
The question says: how many times MORE paint...
So, it should be 4 - 1 times. We have to minus one (the current amount) because the question asks for MORE paint.
Why is this thinking wrong?
I answered this question in
another thread, so I'll just quote myself here:
IanStewart
No, that's not the case. I understand why many people think this, when they compare this wording with the wording we use with percentages -- because "400% greater" does not mean the same thing as "400% of", it might seem that "4 times more" should mean a different thing than "4 times as many". But "4 times more" and "4 times as many" mean the same thing, just because of idiomatic usage in English. The Merriam-Webster dictionary, quoted
here, says this:
The fact is that "five times more" and "five times as much" are idiomatic phrases which have - and are understood to have - exactly the same meaning. The "ambiguity" of _times more_ is imaginary: in the world of actual speech and writing, the meaning of _times more_ is clear and unequivocal. It is an idiom that has existed in our language for more than four centuriesThe quote above applies to similar phrases, like "five times greater" (as the longer quote at the link makes clear). Even if this meaning might seem illogical to some (because of the analogy with how we discuss percentages), it's an idiom, and idioms don't always obey logic. If you read "x is five times greater than y" or "x is five times more than y", or "x is greater than y by a factor of 5", those phrases all mean "x = 5y".