AnujL
gmatophobia can you elaborate statement 1?
we have w>0 and w<1 that is 0<w<1
Hey
AnujLIn statement 1 we have
\(w^2–w^3\) > 0
Let's take \(w^2\) common
\(w^2(1-w) > 0\)
We see the product of two numbers is greater than 0 (i.e. positive), this can happen in two scenarios
1) Both numbers are negative
2) Both numbers are positive
Extending the concept here, either both \(w^2\) & (1-w) should be negative or both should be positive.
However, \(w^2\) cannot be negative (because square of any real number is non - negative), so we can rule out case 1 (
both numbers are negative). Hence, the only scenario under which this expression can be true is when both \(w^2\) and (1-w) are positive.
We know \(w^2\) is positive in this case
Therefore 1 - w should be positive as well.
1-w > 0
i.e. w < 1
Note: w can be anything (i.e. it can be positive or it can be negative). We don't have any restriction on w except that the value of w should be less than 1 and it cannot be 0.
Hope this clarifies.
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