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When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske

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When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 03 Dec 2009, 11:48
1
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A
B
C
D
E

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Question Stats:

74% (00:42) correct 26% (01:25) wrong based on 54 sessions

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When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then asked whether they can hear the hypnotist, they reply, "No." Some theorists try to explain this result by arguing that the selves of hypnotized subjects are dissociated into separate parts, and that the part that is deaf is dissociated from the part that replies.

Which of the following challenges indicates the most serious weakness in the attempted explanation described above?


(A) Why does the part that replies not answer, "Yes"?

(B) Why are the observed facts in need of any special explanation?

(C) Why do the subjects appear to accept the hypnotist's suggestion that they are deaf?

(D) Why do hypnotized subjects all respond the same way in the situation described?

(E) Why are the separate parts of the self the same for all subjects?

Sorry if I'm reposting this same question ... I need a simple tactic/methodology to tackle these kind of questions.

When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then asked whether they can hear the hypnotist, they reply, “No.” Some theorists try to explain this result by arguing that the selves of hypnotized subjects are dissociated into separate parts, and that the part that is deaf is dissociated from the part that replies.
Which of the following challenges indicates the most serious weakness in the attempted explanation
described above?
(A) Why does the part that replies not answer, “Yes”?
(B) Why are the observed facts in need of any special explanation?
(C) Why do the subjects appear to accept the hypnotist’s suggestion that they are deaf?
(D) Why do hypnotized subjects all respond the same way in the situation described?
(E) Why are the separate parts of the self the same for all subjects?















OA : A
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 03 Dec 2009, 21:44
Honestly, it's a real tough one.
I will wait along with you for someone to provide a nice explanation and how to approach for these kind of questions.
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 04 Dec 2009, 00:52
seluka wrote:
Sorry if I'm reposting this same question ... I need a simple tactic/methodology to tackle these kind of questions.

When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then asked whether they can hear the hypnotist, they reply, “No.” Some theorists try to explain this result by arguing that the selves of hypnotized subjects are dissociated into separate parts, and that the part that is deaf is dissociated from the part that replies.
Which of the following challenges indicates the most serious weakness in the attempted explanation
described above?
(A) Why does the part that replies not answer, “Yes”?
(B) Why are the observed facts in need of any special explanation?
(C) Why do the subjects appear to accept the hypnotist’s suggestion that they are deaf?
(D) Why do hypnotized subjects all respond the same way in the situation described?
(E) Why are the separate parts of the self the same for all subjects?


That is a tough one. Here is why I think it is A:
The correct answer must challenge the theorists' theory. Theorist explain the hypnotized subject has two selves or parts: One that is deaf and the other one. (A) is asking if it is true that there are two parts and the part that replies is not the deaf part then why does this part not answer for itself by saying that it can hear? This is the only option that directly challenges the theory.
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 04 Dec 2009, 08:13
When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then asked whether they can hear the hypnotist, they reply, “No.” Some theorists try to explain this result by arguing that the selves of hypnotized subjects are dissociated into separate parts, and that the part that is deaf is dissociated from the part that replies.
Which of the following challenges indicates the most serious weakness in the attempted explanation
described above?
(A) Why does the part that replies not answer, “Yes”?
(B) Why are the observed facts in need of any special explanation?
(C) Why do the subjects appear to accept the hypnotist’s suggestion that they are deaf?
(D) Why do hypnotized subjects all respond the same way in the situation described?
(E) Why are the separate parts of the self the same for all subjects?



I think it has to be A. Well, here's my reason

If the two dissociated parts are indeed separate then why does it listen him in the first place(Hypnotized patients already) and accordingly provide a reply. It can provide any reply Yes or No but since it always provides No, it means that both parts are not completely seperate and are connected. Hence, A
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 04 Dec 2009, 09:25
I agree with answer A.

The theory of the 2 selves has not explained how one of the selves takes control over the other.

The self which is hearing the question should have answered: Yes.
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 04 Dec 2009, 09:54
I got A through POE. I agree with all the explanations though. If the two selves are separate then when does one self give an answer that corresponds with what the other half is being told.
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Aug 2010, 19:57
i picked A>..( glad that we have POE)...power of elimination ....

Logic explained by friends ....regards
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Aug 2010, 22:19
For me it was down to A or D and I chose A
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Aug 2010, 00:12
The OA is A. Attached is the explanation from OG.
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File comment: I looked up the question and this came up on books.google.com. the OA is A
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 17 Aug 2010, 07:50
1
When GMAT builds a formidable question, answers are simple. This question demonstrates how easily you can discover that simple answer. 8-) . Start with A and then D and E. Don't start elimination from the middle. If you overuse POE more than twice you are dead wrong. This may be over simplification though.

seluka wrote:
Can somebody explain ?
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 07 Sep 2010, 08:18
"A" is right. POE will be helpful. However, I will try to explain what helped me.

Analyze the attempted explanation and narrow down to the real meat of the explanation - "....the part that is deaf is dissociated from the part that replies". Per the explanation, the deaf part is not connected to the part that is answering. Hence, the part that is answering is NOT deaf. Therefore, it should have answered YES (for the explanation to be true.
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 14 Jan 2019, 06:07
seluka wrote:
When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then asked whether they can hear the hypnotist, they reply, "No." Some theorists try to explain this result by arguing that the selves of hypnotized subjects are dissociated into separate parts, and that the part that is deaf is dissociated from the part that replies.

Which of the following challenges indicates the most serious weakness in the attempted explanation described above?


(A) Why does the part that replies not answer, "Yes"?

(B) Why are the observed facts in need of any special explanation?

(C) Why do the subjects appear to accept the hypnotist's suggestion that they are deaf?

(D) Why do hypnotized subjects all respond the same way in the situation described?

(E) Why are the separate parts of the self the same for all subjects?

Sorry if I'm reposting this same question ... I need a simple tactic/methodology to tackle these kind of questions.

When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then asked whether they can hear the hypnotist, they reply, “No.” Some theorists try to explain this result by arguing that the selves of hypnotized subjects are dissociated into separate parts, and that the part that is deaf is dissociated from the part that replies.
Which of the following challenges indicates the most serious weakness in the attempted explanation
described above?
(A) Why does the part that replies not answer, “Yes”?
(B) Why are the observed facts in need of any special explanation?
(C) Why do the subjects appear to accept the hypnotist’s suggestion that they are deaf?
(D) Why do hypnotized subjects all respond the same way in the situation described?
(E) Why are the separate parts of the self the same for all subjects?

OA : A


OPEN DISCUSSION OF THIS QUESTION IS HERE: https://gmatclub.com/forum/when-hypnoti ... 02273.html
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske   [#permalink] 14 Jan 2019, 06:07
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