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555-605 Level|   Strengthen|                  
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Y C is correct ? Can someone explain with proper convincing points plz ?
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What's the difficulty level for this question? I couldn't figure out what question stem it was?
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What's the difficulty level for this question? I couldn't figure out what question stem it was?

Tough to peg a difficulty level on questions. This one is tricky but manageable when you understand the question.

Understanding the question type is tricky because the question includes logical words (causal) that don't tie to a question type. The type is actually 'strengthen the conclusion' but the conclusion can be hard to find because its hidden in the question. The conclusion is that there is a causal relationship between the introduction of the non-toasted wheat and bread leavening.

I'll review the options when I get back to a computer.

KW

Posted from my mobile device
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Y C is correct ? Can someone explain with proper convincing points plz ?

As I mentioned in my prior post, this question is asking you to strengthen the conclusion that the discovery of leavend bread was causally related to the introduction of the non-toasted wheat. Your answer needs to make a definitive connection between those two events.

A - Makes no connection between non-toasted wheat and leaven.
B - We are trying to connect non-toasting and leavening...the baking process after the fact is not relevant.
C - This answer perfectly connects the non-toasting with the leavening. Before, when wheat was toasted, the gluten was destroyed, preventing the bread from leavining. With the new, non-toasted wheat, the gluten is present and the leavening process can take place.
D - This answer does not connect non-toasting with leaven.
E - Again, no connection made between non-toasting and leaven.

[Sorry for the delayed response here, we have a brand new baby at home and he's keeping me away from the computer :) ]

KW

Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries
during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must
frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians,
however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery
roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to
previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk
without first toasting the grain.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two
developments were causally related?
A. Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques
for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be
widely consumed.
B. Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined
grain-toasting pits available for baking bread.
C. Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order
for yeast to leaven bread dough.
D. The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not
toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began
to be grown.
E. Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour
Made from it required less effort to produce.
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seofah
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related?


(A) Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed.

(B) Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread.

(C) Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough.

(D) The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown.

(E) Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour made from it required less effort to produce.


Source : GMAT Paper Set 19
Source : GMATPrep Default Exam Pack

as a non native I have no chance to understand the passage. No one knows all the important words like yeast, kernel, husk leavened dough and so on. How is it important to a MBA application test, how good my vocabulary in the field of baking is? I could not use my analytical skills because I just coudnt understand a word of that passage!? Usually I get 80% or more right in CR, but as a non native there is no chance to get this CR correct. Except you work in a multinational bakery I guess haha. Sorry for my comment but it just frustrates me.
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seofah
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related?


(A) Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed.

(B) Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread.

(C) Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough.

(D) The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown.

(E) Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour made from it required less effort to produce.


Source : GMAT Paper Set 19
Source : GMATPrep Default Exam Pack

as a non native I have no chance to understand the passage. No one knows all the important words like yeast, kernel, husk leavened dough and so on. How is it important to a MBA application test, how good my vocabulary in the field of baking is? I could not use my analytical skills because I just coudnt understand a word of that passage!? Usually I get 80% or more right in CR, but as a non native there is no chance to get this CR correct. Except you work in a multinational bakery I guess haha. Sorry for my comment but it just frustrates me.


Hey, its not necessary to know such words..
just try to understand the logic of the sentence.
Some people, tried making something, but accidentally they made something else.. they didn't know about that, until and unless some other thing came up, which had specific characteristics, one of them is "without first toasting the grain." = heating

C) says, Heating (a wheat kernel) destroys its gluten, (a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough.)

Other choices aren't that closely talking about "heating"

Also, the expert from Manhattan has told us a lot, which can help us eliminate most of the other choices, and understand this question very well
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knowing what is a leavened bread vs unleavened will help a lot in answering this question. Guess outside knowledge has some value after all.
seofah
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related?

(A) Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed.

(B) Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice of toasting grain were their stone-lined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread.

(C) Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough.

(D) The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown.

(E) Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour made from it required less effort to produce.


Source : GMAT Paper Set 19
Source : GMATPrep Default Exam Pack­
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I'd like some help regarding A, had it been changed a little.

In my understanding, the passage sets up a contrast between the new technique (leavened bread enabled by the new wheat) and the old ways (unleavened bread). The supposed causal claim is that this contrast led Egyptians to start working with leavened bread.

Answer choice A says that even after the discovery and after it being widespread (a.k.a no more contrast), people still continued using the old way (unleavened bread). To me, that weakens the causal link, since the effect wasn't dominant.

Now here's my confusion: if A had instead said that people reverted fully to only unleavened bread ( so now there's no contrast and the effect is reverted to baseline), wouldn't that actually strengthen the causal story? My reasoning is that once the contrast disappeared, people naturally fell back to their old ways, which seems consistent with the idea that the new wheat was the key difference that enabled leavening in the first place.
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NEYR0N
I'd like some help regarding A, had it been changed a little.

In my understanding, the passage sets up a contrast between the new technique (leavened bread enabled by the new wheat) and the old ways (unleavened bread). The supposed causal claim is that this contrast led Egyptians to start working with leavened bread.

Answer choice A says that even after the discovery and after it being widespread (a.k.a no more contrast), people still continued using the old way (unleavened bread). To me, that weakens the causal link, since the effect wasn't dominant.

Now here's my confusion: if A had instead said that people reverted fully to only unleavened bread ( so now there's no contrast and the effect is reverted to baseline), wouldn't that actually strengthen the causal story? My reasoning is that once the contrast disappeared, people naturally fell back to their old ways, which seems consistent with the idea that the new wheat was the key difference that enabled leavening in the first place.
First, let's review the passage to make sure you're understanding it correctly. We're told that two things happened around 3000 B.C.:


1) The Egyptians finally discovered leavened bread (even though, for centuries prior, the yeasts responsible for leavening were widespread and must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally).

A new (and preferable) wheat variety was introduced (wheat that could be used without having to first toast the grain).

So, is it just a coincidence that those two things happened around the same time? Or did one cause the other?

(C) suggests that #2 caused #1. Before 3000 B.C., it seems as though the Egyptians needed to toast the grain of their wheat before using it for bread. That would have rendered leavening impossible, and that explains why the Egyptians didn't have leavened bread, even though the yeast was readily available. Once they started using the new wheat that did not require toasting, the discovery of leavened bread was inevitable.

What kind of bread the Egyptians preferred to consume after that discovery is irrelevant. Maybe they fell in love with the new stuff and stopped making/eating unleavened bread. Or maybe they thought leavened bread was gross and stuck with the familiar unleavened bread. That doesn’t change the fact that they now are ABLE to make either type. Regardless of their preference, we're left wondering WHY the Egyptians finally discovered leavened bread in the first place. That's why (A) and your altered version of (A) are irrelevant.

If instead we had something like, "A fungus killed off the new wheat 1,000 years later, and suddenly Egyptians stopped eating leavened bread entirely," then that would certainly suggest a causal connection between the new wheat and leaved bread. But simply knowing that the Egyptians preferred one or the other, even though both are available, doesn't help.

(C) is the only option that suggests that #1 and #2 above are causally linked.
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This one can be tricky - you're dealing with a historical puzzle that requires you to connect two seemingly separate developments. Let me walk you through how to approach this systematically.

Understanding What We're Looking For

The passage sets up an intriguing mystery: yeast was everywhere, Egyptians accidentally mixed it into bread for centuries, yet they didn't discover leavened bread until around 3000 B.C. At that same time, a new wheat variety was introduced that didn't need toasting before removing the husk.

The question asks you to strengthen the causal connection between these two developments. Here's the key insight: you need more than just a timing coincidence - you need a mechanism that explains HOW the new wheat variety enabled the discovery of leavened bread.

Let's Think Through This Step by Step

Step 1: Identify the Puzzle
Why didn't leavening work for centuries despite accidental yeast contact? Something must have been preventing it.

Step 2: Notice the Key Difference
The critical change mentioned is that the old wheat required toasting, while the new variety didn't. This processing difference must be important.

Step 3: Find the Missing Link
We need an answer that explains:
  • Why leavening was impossible with the old toasted wheat
  • Why leavening became possible with the new untoasted wheat

Step 4: Evaluate Answer C
Answer C tells us that heating wheat kernels destroys gluten, and gluten must be present for yeast to leaven bread dough.

This is your "aha moment" - it perfectly explains the causal chain:
  • Old wheat → toasting required → gluten destroyed → yeast can't work (even with accidental contact)
  • New wheat → no toasting needed → gluten preserved → yeast can finally work → discovery possible

This creates a direct scientific mechanism linking the wheat variety change to the leavening discovery.

Why Other Answers Don't Work

Answer B mentions that toasting pits became available for baking, but this is just about infrastructure - it doesn't explain the scientific reason why leavening was impossible before.

Answer E talks about ease of flour production, but efficiency doesn't explain why yeast suddenly started working after centuries of accidental contact.

The Correct Answer: C

---

Want to Master This Question Type?

Understanding the core logic is great, but there's so much more to learn about strengthen questions involving causal relationships. The complete solution on Neuron shows you the systematic framework for identifying causal mechanisms, recognizing common trap answers, and applying this pattern to similar CR questions.

You can check out the detailed breakdown on Neuron by e-GMAT to see how this approach applies systematically to all causal reasoning questions. You can also explore comprehensive solutions for other GMAT official questions here with practice quizzes and detailed analytics into your strengths and weaknesses.

Happy studying!
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