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07 Oct 2022, 21:55
Kudos
Bookmarks
Hi jabhatta2,
Passage: Bought 10 tickets in advance --> Higher chance of losing awareness of the cost --> Higher chance of no-show
Option D: Bought 10 tickets in advance --> Higher chance that something or the other comes up in between - life happens (further explanation in my solution) --> Higher chance of no-show
We didn’t know earlier when the individual tickets were bought.
I don’t follow this bit. Elaborate?
Quote:
Passage: Bought 10 tickets in advance --> Higher chance of losing awareness of the cost --> Higher chance of no-show
Option D: Bought 10 tickets in advance --> Higher chance that something or the other comes up in between - life happens (further explanation in my solution) --> Higher chance of no-show
We didn’t know earlier when the individual tickets were bought.
Quote:
I don’t follow this bit. Elaborate?
17 Oct 2022, 11:16
Kudos
Bookmarks
AnishPassi
Replying to a PM:
Quote:
I believe with the word 'significantly' instead of 'slightly' the answer choice would be correct.
What's the current explanation?
Quote:
Essentially, the author believes that the people who paid in advance for all ten plays retain lesser awareness about the cost of the plays, and that's why they're less likely to attend the plays.
If we now learn that on buying tickets in bulk the buyers got deep discounts, I'd think that the reason those people had a higher no-show rate is related to a financial calculation, and not their memory.
e.g.
Say, Price/ play is $10.
And say, the price for buying tickets to the 10 plays in advance is $30.
So, a consumer might think: as long as I watch 3 out the 10 plays, I'll not lose any money. If I watch even one more than three, I'll save money. So, let me go ahead and buy tickets in bulk - even though I don’t intend to attend more than 4 or 5 plays.
So, I'd think that the reason for higher no-show is not related to memory (as mentioned in the passage) but to this financial calculation. (May be such buyers never even intended to attend more than 3 - 4 plays.)
Makes sense?
07 Nov 2022, 23:46
Kudos
Bookmarks
Can someone please explain to me why (A) is not the answer? (D) seems like a strengthener/reinforcer to me
Argument is "This may be at least in part because the greater the awareness customers retain about the cost of an item, the more likely they are to use it."
So because advance buyers buy the tickets in advance, they retain less awareness than customers for individual plays. And THAT's why they have a higher drop out rate.
(D) says those who buy individual tickets do so right before the play starts. Well, doesn't that reinforce the argument then? Because they buy it so close to the play, they retain the most awareness of the cost. Whereas (A) seems to give the ALTERNATE explanation that the reason advance ticket customers have a higher drop out rate is because their tickets were cheaper. Which means their incentive to show up and recoup the value of the ticket was less. This option attributes the difference in no-show rates to the difference in costs itself, rather than a difference in people's awareness about the cost which in turn depends on the point in time that the ticket was bought (the earlier it was bought, the less the awareness and vice versa. Cue (D) which speaks to the "vice versa" in question).
It's a bit frustrating because some of these answer choices seem to make no sense (ironic given this is called "critical reasoning"). Or at least the way the question/argument is phrased is rather deceptive.
Ok, I've finished ranting. but could someone still please help me understand this? Much appreciated!
Argument is "This may be at least in part because the greater the awareness customers retain about the cost of an item, the more likely they are to use it."
So because advance buyers buy the tickets in advance, they retain less awareness than customers for individual plays. And THAT's why they have a higher drop out rate.
(D) says those who buy individual tickets do so right before the play starts. Well, doesn't that reinforce the argument then? Because they buy it so close to the play, they retain the most awareness of the cost. Whereas (A) seems to give the ALTERNATE explanation that the reason advance ticket customers have a higher drop out rate is because their tickets were cheaper. Which means their incentive to show up and recoup the value of the ticket was less. This option attributes the difference in no-show rates to the difference in costs itself, rather than a difference in people's awareness about the cost which in turn depends on the point in time that the ticket was bought (the earlier it was bought, the less the awareness and vice versa. Cue (D) which speaks to the "vice versa" in question).
It's a bit frustrating because some of these answer choices seem to make no sense (ironic given this is called "critical reasoning"). Or at least the way the question/argument is phrased is rather deceptive.
Ok, I've finished ranting. but could someone still please help me understand this? Much appreciated!
