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Re: A dealer purchased an antique for $240 and then marked up the price of [#permalink]
nislam wrote:
Could anyone please give a solution to the problem? Thanks


Let, selling price=x, marked price=0.4x, so cost price=x-0.4x=0.6x. After discount, selling price=x*0.8=0.8x.
Therefore, profit is ((0.8x-0.6x)/0.6x)*100=200/6=33.33%(B)
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Re: A dealer purchased an antique for $240 and then marked up the price of [#permalink]
nislam wrote:
A dealer purchased an antique for $240 and then marked up the price of the antique by 40 percent of the selling price. If the merchant subsequently discounted the antique by 20% of the selling price and so the antique, then what was the merchant's gross profit as a percent of his original purchase price?

(A) 25 %

(B) 33 \(\frac{1}{2 }\)%

(C) 35 %

(D) 37.5 %

(C) 40 %

\(S = 100\) (Say) , Marked Up \(= 40 =\) (Profit) {Since Mark up is the profit component only)

Thus, \(C = 60\)

Quote:
merchant subsequently discounted the antique by 20% of the selling price


So Final selling Price is \(80\)

Thus, Final profit % is \(\frac{(80-60)}{60}*100 = \frac{20}{60}*100 = 33.33\)% , Answer must be (B)
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Re: A dealer purchased an antique for $240 and then marked up the price of [#permalink]
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