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A diet high in saturated fats increases a person's risk of developing heart disease. Regular consumption of red wine reduces that risk. Per-capita consumption of saturated fats is currently about the same in France as in the United States, but there is less heart disease there than in the United States because consumption of red wine is higher in France. The difference in regular red-wine consumption has been narrowing, but no similar convergence in heart-disease rates has occurred.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to account for the lack of convergence noted above?
(A) Consumption of saturated fats is related more strongly to the growth of fatty deposits on artery walls, which reduce blood flow to the heart, than it is to heart disease directly.
(B) Over the past 30 years, per-capita consumption of saturated fats has remained essentially unchanged in the United States but has increased somewhat in France.
(C) Reports of the health benefits of red wine have led many people in the United States to drink red wine regularly.
(D) Cigarette smoking, which can also contribute to heart disease, is only slightly more common in France than in the United States.
(E) Regular consumption of red wine is declining dramatically among young adults in France, and heart disease typically does not manifest itself until middle age.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to account for the lack of convergence noted above?
(A) Consumption of saturated fats is related more strongly to the growth of fatty deposits on artery walls, which reduce blood flow to the heart, than it is to heart disease directly.
(B) Over the past 30 years, per-capita consumption of saturated fats has remained essentially unchanged in the United States but has increased somewhat in France.
(C) Reports of the health benefits of red wine have led many people in the United States to drink red wine regularly.
(D) Cigarette smoking, which can also contribute to heart disease, is only slightly more common in France than in the United States.
(E) Regular consumption of red wine is declining dramatically among young adults in France, and heart disease typically does not manifest itself until middle age.
16 Sep 2004, 22:01
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The difference in regular red-wine consumption has been narrowing, but no similar convergence in heart-disease rates has occurred
The above means that either US population has been drinking more red wine or France population has been drinking less wine so that their wine consumption narrowed (the gap in wine consumption b/w the two diminished)
E explains why wine consumption dimished in France (youngsters drink less of it) but why heart diseases are still high(because only middle-aged people are affected). This resolves the paradox at hand
06 Oct 2010, 12:44
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suyashjhawar
A diet high in saturated fat content increases the likelihood of developing heart disease. Several studies have shown that the regular, moderate intake of red wine decreases that likelihood. In the United States and Great Britain, the per-capita consumption of saturated fats is roughly equivalent. However, heart disease is less prevalent in Great Britain than in the United States, possibly because the per-capita consumption of red wine is higher in Great Britain that in the United States. Interestingly, the gap between per-capita consumption rates of red wine in the two countries has been falling, yet no relative change in the incidence of heart disease has been noted.
Which of the following, if true, best resolves the apparent paradox in the statements above?
A. Heart disease generally results from the build-up of fatty plaques in the inner lining of the arterial vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle.
B. Per capita consumption of saturated fats has decreased notably in both countries over the past decade.
C. The per capita consumption of red wine has increased notably in the United States over the past decade.
D. The relative incidence of other factors that contribute to heart disease, such as cigarette smoking and high cholesterol levels, is roughly the same in both countries.
E. Per capita consumption of red wine among the under-40 age group in Great Britain has dropped
Plz explain...Had a tough time solving this...
Which of the following, if true, best resolves the apparent paradox in the statements above?
A. Heart disease generally results from the build-up of fatty plaques in the inner lining of the arterial vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle.
B. Per capita consumption of saturated fats has decreased notably in both countries over the past decade.
C. The per capita consumption of red wine has increased notably in the United States over the past decade.
D. The relative incidence of other factors that contribute to heart disease, such as cigarette smoking and high cholesterol levels, is roughly the same in both countries.
E. Per capita consumption of red wine among the under-40 age group in Great Britain has dropped
Plz explain...Had a tough time solving this...
We know that in the US and in Britain, people are drinking wine in more similar quantities now than before. From the info given, that might lead us to think that the incidence of heart disease should be becoming more similar in the two countries, all other factors being equal. There are a lot of potential problems here; it may be, for example, that per capita American wine drinking is increasing only because a few people are drinking a ton more than before - it may not be the case that more Americans are drinking wine. Or it may be that there is some other factor which contributes to heart disease - say exercise, or diet - and while Americans may be lowering their risk of heart disease by drinking more wine than before, they may be increasing their risk by eating worse or exercising less. Or it may be that, for example, people who were never at great risk of heart disease in the US have started drinking wine, or that people who were never at great risk of heart disease in Britain have stopped drinking wine. There are very many potential resolutions to the apparent paradox in the question, so Process of Elimination may be the best approach here. But, if have information about the reasons that wine drinking levels have become more similar in the two countries, that may contribute to an explanation. E tells us that young people in Britain are drinking less than before; presumably younger people are at less risk of heart disease than older people, so this would help to explain why wine drinking levels are more similar but heart disease levels are not.
Looking at other answer choices, A tells us about the causes of heart disease; that's not relevant. B tells us that saturated fat consumption has dropped significantly in both countries. If we knew that the drop was greater in Britain, that might help to resolve the paradox, but we have no comparison between the drops in the two countries, so B doesn't help us to determine why the change in the difference of wine consumption in the two countries has not led to a change in the difference of incidence in heart disease. Similarly, D rules out other factors that might have helped to resolve the paradox, so D does the opposite of what we are looking for. C tells us that wine-drinking is increasing in the US. It doesn't matter whether drinking increased in the US or decreased in Britain; we need to know why this has not had an effect on the difference in incidence of heart disease.
Red wines.
