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# A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof

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03 Apr 2018, 07:34
sunny91 wrote:

A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.[/b]

(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease
(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(E) greater was coronary disease likely

Hi,
can we eliminate option B on the below basis-
The idiom in B is as follows:
The more X, the more Y.
In this idiom, the more cannot be followed by a verb- The more coffee these doctors drank, the more was their likelihood
The comparison in B is not grammatically viable.

Hello sunny91,

I am not sure if you still have this doubt. Here is the explanation nonetheless.

The reason that you have presented cannot be used to reject Choice B.

If you compare the structure of Choice B with the correct answer choice D, they both are identical except for the word more in Choice B and greater in Choice D.

Hence, the reason that more cannot be followed by a verb is not sound enough to reject Choice B.

Hope this helps.
Thanks.
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A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof  [#permalink]

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Updated on: 07 May 2019, 12:31
2
3
Hello Everyone!

Wow - this is a tricky question! Let's take a closer look at it to figure out how to arrive at the correct answer quickly! Before we get started, here is the original question with the major differences highlighted in orange:

A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.

(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease
(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(E) greater was coronary disease likely

I can tell from the other comments in this section that we need to address the more vs. greater debate. For this particular sentence, here is how we need to interpret the rule:

more = countable objects / uncountable things that increase
The longer you study for your exams, the more pencils you'll need to sharpen to take notes.
My youngest child has more temper tantrums than her older sister.
(Both pencils and temper tantrums are items you can count.)

greater = nouns that are acting as, or taking the place of, a number (area, price, volume, distance, percentage, likelihood, chances, etc.)
The area of Australia is greater than that of Texas.
(The area of Australia is a number - square kilometers, acres, square miles, etc. They just don't tell us the exact number in the sentence.)
The percentage of teenagers who fail their first driver's test is greater than those who pass.
(A percentage is always a number...they just don't tell us the exact number in the sentence.)

The more/greater in this sentence is referring back to "likelihood," which is actually a noun acting as a number/percentage! The likelihood that doctors will develop coronary disease is a percentage (30%, 60%, 1 in 3, etc.). The sentence just doesn't tell us the actual percentage - it just says that there is one, and that will increase if doctors drink more coffee. Therefore, it makes the most sense to use "greater" in this case.

Therefore, we can eliminate options A, B, & C because they use "more" incorrectly.

Now that we're only left with two options, let's see which option is the better choice:

(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease

This is CORRECT because the word "greater" is correctly referring to the likelihood of a doctor developing coronary disease, not the disease itself!

(E) greater was coronary disease likely

This is INCORRECT because it muddles up the meaning. The thing that's greater in this sentence is the likelihood a doctor gets coronary disease, not the coronary disease itself.

There you have it - option D is the correct choice!

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Originally posted by EMPOWERgmatVerbal on 11 Sep 2018, 16:15.
Last edited by EMPOWERgmatVerbal on 07 May 2019, 12:31, edited 1 time in total.
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01 Oct 2018, 20:38
GMATmantra wrote:
https://youtu.be/mItsFpwxVvE

Is this solution correct? As far as I know- there is an idiom-the more X the more Y

Please someone help me on this question.
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Re: A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof  [#permalink]

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08 Oct 2018, 17:10
1
kanthaliya wrote:
GMATmantra wrote:
https://youtu.be/mItsFpwxVvE

Is this solution correct? As far as I know- there is an idiom-the more X the more Y

Please someone help me on this question.

kanthaliya , you are correct.

This idiom exists: "the more the X the more the Y."

This idiom also exists: "the more the X the greater the Y."

Both idioms exist.

Magoosh, The GMAT Idiom Book, under "Quirky Idiom," at page 71:

Not quite as accurate but easier to remember: the ________er, the _________er
(There is no such word as "morer." The idea is parallel comparison, contrast, or equality.)

Examples:

The more I learn about you, the more I like you.

“. . . it is ages since books have claimed me. For a long time now I have practically ceased to read. But the taint is still there. Now people are books to me. I read them from cover to cover and toss them aside. I devour them, one after the other. And the more I read, the more insatiable I become. There is no limit to it. There could be no end, and there was none, until inside me a bridge began to form which united me again with the current of life from which as a child I had been separated.”
-- Henry Miller, Tropic of Capricorn (1934)
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Re: A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof  [#permalink]

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22 Dec 2018, 06:06
Quote:
After going through various suggestions by GMAT experts at Magoosh and Manhattan, I could arrive at the following conclusion:

The positive....comparative...superlative forms of certain adjectives of quantity are as follows:

set 1. many...more...most
set 2. much...more....most
set 3. great...greater...greatest

While set 1 (many...more...most) is used for countable nouns, set 2 (much...more....most) and set 3 (great...greater...greatest) are used for uncountable nouns.

Now there could be 2 types of uncountable nouns
type a. Quantity word / numbers themselves (e.g. price, volume, weight, probability etc.) are uncountable.
type b. Other uncountable nouns (honesty, poverty, etc as you mentioned)

The set 2 (much...more....most) is used for type b (other uncountable nouns) uncountable nouns.
The set 3 ( great...greater...greatest) is used for type a (Quantity word / numbers) uncountable nouns.

Therefore we see that "more" can be used for (i) countable nouns and (ii) uncountable nouns that are not quantity words/ numbers.
"Greater" can be used for (iii) uncountable nouns that are quantity words/ numbers.

I was always confused with when to use "more" and "most".
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Re: A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof  [#permalink]

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05 Jan 2019, 20:43
DollySharma wrote:
LithiumIon wrote:
2016 GMAT Official Guide, Question 10, Pg. 675

A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.

(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease
(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(E) greater was coronary disease likely

Let's look at the structure here-

"the more coffee these doctors drank, more they had a likelihood of coronary disease

As the second part of the structure refers to 'likelihood', we need 'greater'. 'greater' is used when the noun is a number. For example: percentage, rate, likelihood, distance and population.

Also, 'likelihood' means 'the probability of a specified outcome'. Thus, it's imprecise to say they had a likelihood/probability of coronary disease. The correct usage should be "likelihood of having coronary disease'.

E goes out as it distorts the meaning. 'likelihood' was greater, NOT the disease.

This leaves us with D.

Happy Prepping! :D

Dolly Sharma

thank you for excellent explanation.
this question is hard and it takes me a long time to solve. but , your explanation is great. i just want to add a little.

normally, " likelihood of doing" is correct idiom. but "likelihood of +noun" is not alway wrong. the point is which noun can go with "likelihood of +noun". the answer is simple. only the noun which make sense with "likelihood" can do so.
'likelihood of existence" is correct
"likelihood of conary desease " is incorrect.

in this problem, gmat tests us the typical concept which most often is tested on the gmat. this concept, though fatally important, is so simple that we use only our common sense of this world to justify a combination of phases and words. using our common sense of this world, we ask ourself " is this combination of words logic ? " .

"our likelihood of existence" is logi
" our likelihood of conorary desease" is not logic
"evidence of existence of primitive civilization" is logic
" evidence of civilization" is not logic

at this point, we realize the difference between spoken and writen English. spoken English we use for daily conversation contains many non-logic combination of words. we can not use this combination in formal writen English that gmat wants us to have.

at first this problem is weird to me and confuse me. latter, I see that the traditional concept on gmat is tested here. " can this words combine with that words logically?. only when do you understand this basic concept, you can bigin master SC section
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06 Jan 2019, 00:26
think of idiom first
according to Macmillan dictionary online, we have the following
likelihood of
likelihood that...
likely to do
likely that..

the dictionary dose not present " likelihood to do" . this mean there is no this idiom .
choice C is gone because of " likelihood to have"
choice A is gone because "desease" can not go with logically with "likelihood of" though other nouns can do so.
greater is better than more to go with likelihood.
D is left
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05 Feb 2019, 07:17
Hey daagh
Can you please tell what does their refer to in D ?
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Re: A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof  [#permalink]

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01 Jun 2019, 08:12
According to a recent study, retirees in the United States are four times more likely to give regular financial aid to their children as to receive it from them.

A. retirees in the United States are four times more likely to give regular financial aid to their children as

B. retirees in the United States are four times as likely to give regular financial aid to their children as it is for them

C. retirees in the United States are four times more likely to give regular financial aid to their children than

D. it is four times more likely for retirees in the United States to give regular financial aid to their children than they are

E. it is four times as likely that retirees in the United States will give their children regular financial aid as they are
https://gmatclub.com/forum/according-to ... 68586.html

Dear experts,
In the above OG question, the same parameter-likelyhood-is compared using more. Can you please help me in understanding the difference?
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A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof  [#permalink]

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13 Jun 2019, 22:30
GMATNinja wrote:
SS18, if you're being really strict and literal with the meaning here, (A) and (C) are both just a little bit illogical.

In (C), the clearest issue is that the verb tense is a little bit off. "... the more coffee the doctors drank, the more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease." One problem is "would have" -- the phrase conditional, which doesn't make much sense here. We're looking at facts of a study: "the more x occurred, the more y occurred". Since these are facts, it wouldn't make sense to say: "the more x occurred, the more y would have occurred." There's simply no need to make the second part of the phrase conditional.

In (A), it doesn't make much sense to say "the more they had a likelihood." It makes sense to talk about the degree to which something is likely to occur: "a higher likelihood" or "a greater likelihood." But this is subtly different: (A) is saying "the more they had a likelihood" -- which seems to express "likelihood" as a binary thing, that you either have or you don't -- so now (A) seems to say that the more the physicians drank, the higher the odds of having a likelihood. And that doesn't make much sense. (C) suffers from the same problem, too.

I hope this helps!

Dear GMATNinja,

I am convinced with option D as right answer.
I have query regarding the use of "their" and "they" in the respective options. I feel that "they"/"their" has more than 1 antecedent- doctors and physicians.
So, correct answer should be "greater was doctors's likelihood of having coronary disease". Kindly clarify

A. more they had a likelihood of coronary disease
B. more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
C. more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
D. greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease
E. greater was coronary disease likely

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Re: A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof  [#permalink]

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22 Jun 2019, 14:23
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priyanshu14 wrote:
Dear GMATNinja,

I am convinced with option D as right answer.
I have query regarding the use of "their" and "they" in the respective options. I feel that "they"/"their" has more than 1 antecedent- doctors and physicians.
So, correct answer should be "greater was doctors's likelihood of having coronary disease". Kindly clarify

Quote:
A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.

A. more they had a likelihood of coronary disease
B. more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
C. more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
D. greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease
E. greater was coronary disease likely

For starters, pronoun ambiguity isn't an absolute rule on the GMAT. More on that in this video.

More importantly, think about the meaning of the sentence in this case: "A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank..." The doctors ARE the physicians! So it really doesn't matter whether "their" (or "they") refers to "the doctors" or "the physicians" -- they're the same people anyway.

I hope this helps a bit!
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22 Jun 2019, 20:43
GMATNinja wrote:
priyanshu14 wrote:
Dear GMATNinja,

I am convinced with option D as right answer.
I have query regarding the use of "their" and "they" in the respective options. I feel that "they"/"their" has more than 1 antecedent- doctors and physicians.
So, correct answer should be "greater was doctors's likelihood of having coronary disease". Kindly clarify

Quote:
A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.

A. more they had a likelihood of coronary disease
B. more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
C. more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
D. greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease
E. greater was coronary disease likely

For starters, pronoun ambiguity isn't an absolute rule on the GMAT. More on that in this video.

More importantly, think about the meaning of the sentence in this case: "A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank..." The doctors ARE the physicians! So it really doesn't matter whether "their" (or "they") refers to "the doctors" or "the physicians" -- they're the same people anyway.

I hope this helps a bit!

Thank you for the revert.

Posted from my mobile device
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31 Aug 2019, 01:37
likelihood of remember this idiom likelihood+of
Using a seatbelt will reduce the likelihood of serious injury in a car accident.
little/lower/high/greater etc likelihood
There was very little likelihood of her getting the job.
likelihood (that)
They must face the likelihood that the newspaper might go bankrupt
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07 Sep 2019, 22:53
LithiumIon wrote:
A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.

(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease

(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease

(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease

(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease

(E) greater was coronary disease likely

[textarea]The Official Guide for GMAT Review 2017

sayantanc2k, daagh, AjiteshArun

The usage of past perfect 'had' is incorrect in original sentence because it makes sequencing of occurrence of coronary disease and drinking of coffee illogical.
That is, the actual intention of the sentence is that the doctors first drank coffee and then the likelihood of the disease increased. Now because of the 'had' the sequencing is the likelihood of the disease increased even before the doctors drank coffee.

Am I correct in my reasoning ?

If not can you please help me in understanding what is incorrect in using the past perfect in option 'A'. I didn't really got what GmatNinja explained.

Thanks
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07 Sep 2019, 23:04
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Saurabh
The 'had' in the original text is not a past perfect. It is the simple past of 'have'.
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07 Sep 2019, 23:28
daagh wrote:
Saurabh
The 'had' in the original text is not a past perfect. It is the simple past of 'have'.

Thank you daagh

So in option 'A' apart from the usage of 'more' there's nothing else wrong, right?

Thanks
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10 Sep 2019, 05:56
Hi All,
I Need your help on the below question,

A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease.

I am facing problem with the punctuation.

why it is not a sentence fragment??

As per my limited knowledge "comma" is used when:-
Case 1:- Dependent clause, Independent clause (Fanboys)
Case 2:-Clause, (verb+ing modifier)::(Verb+ed modifier)::(Relative clause)
Case 3:- Clause, Noun+ noun modifier
Case 4:-Appositives
Case 5:-Absolute Phrase
Case 6:-Independent clause, conjunction + IC
Can you please explain me the structure of this sentence?
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10 Sep 2019, 06:47
Top Contributor
Smit
Any reason why this is a fragment? Also a, DC cannot be joined with an IC with a fanboy, Am I correct?
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10 Sep 2019, 07:31
daagh wrote:
Smit
Any reason why this is a fragment? Also a, DC cannot be joined with an IC with a fanboy, Am I correct?

Hi daagh sir,

A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease.

What i discern from the above Sc example is as follows
"Study" is the subject of the first clause
of some 1,000 physicians is prepositional phrase modifying study
indicates is acting as a linking verb
“that” is just the beginning of a subordinate clause. What study indicates? --- that the more coffee these doctors drank, greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease.

After comma ,
"Their" is possessive pronoun - antecedent of doctors---It is also acting as a subject of the second clause
"was" is a verb.
So we have clause, clause
however, there is no dependent marker in the second or first clause ?

I am sure that this is wrong way comprehending the structure of this sentence . Can you put some light why we need comma there ?
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10 Sep 2019, 09:30
1
Top Contributor
Smit

A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease.

This sentence can be parsed as

A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates
That
the more coffee these doctors drank, their likelihood of having coronary diseases was greater.

This is the structure.
1. First you have an independent clause
2. Then you have a subordinate conjunction 'that'
3 .What follows is another noun phrase "the more coffee these doctors drank'. Here 'the more coffee' is a noun, which is further expanded by the phrase these doctors drank. It literally refers to the quantum of coffee, which the doctors took. Therefore, this is not a clause. This is a kind of idiom like "the longer I ran, the more tired I became."

4. Then you have another IC, namely, the greater was their likelihood…
This IC when combined with the subordinate conjunction 'that' turns the entire second part into a dependent clause.

This is a normal complex sentence structure. You may like to remember that the word 'that' is an important subordinate conjunction in many of the subordinate clauses.
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