megafan
Decreasing the original price of an item by 25% and then decreasing the new price by z% is equivalent to decreasing the original price by
(A) \(0.25(1 + \frac{3z}{100})\)
(B) \(0.25(1 + \frac{z}{100})\)
(C) \(0.25(1 - \frac{3z}{100})\)
(D) \(0.75(1 - \frac{z}{100})\)
(E) \(0.75(1 + \frac{3z}{100})\)
Source: Gmat Hacks 1800
can anybody help, are we looking for the percentage decrease or are we looking the amount of decrease ?
Let initial amount be 100 after 25% discount we get 75 then z% discount will give \(\frac{(100-z)}{100}*75\) = \(\frac{100-z}{4}*3\)
So equivalent discount is
100 -\(\frac{300+3z}{4}\)
\(\frac{100+3z}{4}\)
Well as option A after simplification states \(\frac{100+3z}{400}\)
So why this difference ?
( Guaranteed Kudos for anyone who can help with this, thank you)
You can easily figure this out by taking numbers instead of variables to understand the concept here:
Question: What is the overall discount? (it will be in percentage terms only since no actual numbers are provided)
But note that the answer cannot be 40. The overall discount will be in terms of percentage. We say that the discount is 40 per cent i.e. 40/100 i.e. 40%.