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Ok on second thoughts this is a idiom question.

not so much X as Y.

Correct: I am not so much sad as perplexed
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thevenus
Very tricky, good one !
can you please explain the answer???

what idiom is used here
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Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement as for their being practical work clothes.

A. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement as for their being practical work clothes.
correct
( it is the best choice among 5 listed)
B. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement but for their being practical work clothes.

incorrect use--- not so much as........ as
C. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement but for being practical work clothes
incorrect use --- not so much as........ as

D. Denim jeans were originally worn not as a fashion statement as for them being practical work clothes.

in this the correct use of as......as but " them is wrongly used" incorrect pronoun usage.

E. Denim jeans were originally worn not as a fashion statement but as for them being practical work clothes.

again incorrect pronoun usage


so the answer is A
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it is clear now but what about the parallelism ..

x and y should be parallel in this idiom but they are not ..
as x as vs as y and even the tenses are different


can anyone explain...
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Experts - Can you pls correct my understanding and illustrate the usage of below listed idioms with examples.

not so much as X as Y; - Correct in GMAT.
not as much as X as Y; - ??

as much as - Correct in GMAT.
so much as - ??
So much that - ?? (for result)

Just as X so Y - Correct in GMAT.
Just as X as Y - ??

as long as - Correct in GMAT.
so long as - Correct in GMAT.

as X as Y - Correct in GMAT.
as X so Y - Correct in GMAT.
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Women are mostly like to do fashion even a normal day. And in the festival time like no they become more aggressive to do it best to be best. Marriage and parties are mean time for them to do it. Mostly women like to wear designer sarees
and wedding sarees . Now in the city market you can see the effect of fashion easily.
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mikemcgarry
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Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement as for their being practical work clothes.
A. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement as for their being practical work clothes.
B. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement but for their being practical work clothes.
C. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement but for being practical work clothes
D. Denim jeans were originally worn not as a fashion statement as for them being practical work clothes.
E. Denim jeans were originally worn not as a fashion statement but as for them being practical work clothes
.
I received a pm from Archit143 about this question. The first thing I will say is --- I am not impressed with the quality of the question. Yes, isolates an important idiom, which I will discuss. But all five answers have that awkward phrase "for their being practical work clothes" --- that abomination would never appear on the real GMAT.

There seems to be a great deal of confusion about the idiom in play here. Let me distinguish two closely related idioms
1) not A but B
2) not so much A as B / not as much A as B
Both of those are 100% correct on the GMAT. The first one is a black & white distinction --- whatever we are talking about is not at all A, but rather, only B. If I say "thing is not A, but B" that implies the statement "thing is A" is totally false and the statement "thing is B" is totally true.
The other idiom connotes a difference of degrees, shades of gray ----- both statements, "thing is A" and "thing is B" are partially true, but the latter is correct more of the time than is the former. In saying "thing is not so much A as B", I am saying, thing is really both in some sense, but the relatively emphasis is on B.

If I say: "I listen to not rock music but classical music." --- this means that 100% of my listening is classical, and 0% is rock. It's very absolute, very black-and-white.

If I say: "I listen to not so much rock music as classical music." ---- this means, yes, I do listen to both, but far more frequently to classical --- it may be a 30%/70%, or a 5%/95% split --- we don't know the exact ratio --- we just know that it's mostly classical and there's some amount of rock music in there as well. There's no absolute separation.

Here, even apart from the other grammatical considerations, it would be illogical to say
Denim jeans were originally worn not as a fashion statement but as practical work clothes.
We would be saying --- when blue jeans were introduced, you could scour the Earth looking for folks who wore them, and not a single person attached any fashion significance to them. That's crazy. Of course, as practical as blue jeans were, someone somewhere must have thought of them as fashionable as well. All it takes is one hot person showing off her or his curves in a pair of jeans and BAM it's a fashion statement. The 0%/100% split just doesn't make sense in this context.

Some of the answer answer also mix and match these two idioms which you can't do
not A as B
not as much A but B
not so much A but B

Answers choices (B) & (C) & (D) & (E) fall into this category, so they are all wrong.

(E) is an absolutely nightmare. That string of words "but as for them being" will never be correct in any GMAT SC problem.

The only possible right answer is (A), although I consider even this a poor sentence that the GMAT would likely consider incorrect. I will suggest as a superior version:
Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement as practical work clothes

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)


Thanks Mike

Your explanations are awesome and really unparalleled.

You mentioned a sentence in you example "I listen to not rock music but classical music."

I think its an example of split infinitive and considered wrong on GMAT
correct me if i am wrong.
i read this in Ron's Post on SC tips.
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You mentioned a sentence in you example "I listen to not rock music but classical music."
I think its an example of split infinitive and considered wrong on GMAT
correct me if i am wrong.
i read this in Ron's Post on SC tips.
It is not. Here, this is just the simple preposition "to" followed by nouns. To be an infinitive, we need "to" followed by a verb.

to run
to walk
to seek

Those are infinitives.

to swiftly run
to eagerly walk
to boldly seek

Those are split infinitive, generally considered in poor taste, and unlikely to appear on a correct answer in GMAT SC.

I talk to someone
I listen to music
I go to bed.

None of those are infinitive. They all are simple prepositional phrases, "to" + [noun]

Does that make sense?
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Thanks that really helped.

I missed the point, explained really in an excellent way with examples.
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Can someone tell what 'their' refers to? If it refers to jeans, shouldn't it be plural?
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maddy007
Can someone tell what 'their' refers to? If it refers to jeans, shouldn't it be plural?
Dear maddy007,
I'm happy to respond. :-)

Yes, the antecedent of "their" is "denim jeans." These match, because both are plural: "denim jeans" and "their" is a plural pronoun.

Here's a blog article about basic pronoun rules:
https://magoosh.com/gmat/2013/gmat-pronoun-traps/

Does all this make sense?
Mike :-)
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Thanks Mike! However won't it be preferable to use 'them' in the orignal sentence instead of 'their'. I think we need an objective pronoun in place of the possessive used here.
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maddy007
Thanks Mike! However won't it be preferable to use 'them' in the orignal sentence instead of 'their'. I think we need an objective pronoun in place of the possessive used here.
Dear Maddy,
I'm happy to respond. :-)
This is one structure in which formal, academic language differs from colloquial language.
"...for them being practical work clothes." = casual, colloquial, lowbrow, never acceptable on the GMAT
"...for their being practical work clothes." = sophisticated, well-spoken, highbrow, typical of academia, would appear on the GMAT.

In the second construction, "being" is a gerund, which takes on the role of a noun, and the possessive "their" acts on this gerund.
my exercising
your singing
their being


It's not that there anything definitively wrong grammatically with the first. It's just a matter of the feel of the language. The GMAT extremely conservative in its stylistic predilections. Many structures that would be acceptable in colloquial speech---omitting "that," split infinitives, ending a sentence with a preposition---never appear in a correct answer on the GMAT.

For example, see this blog:
https://magoosh.com/gmat/2013/repeating ... -the-gmat/
I discuss many of these sophisticated forms in articles on that blog.

Does all this make sense?
Mike :-)
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mikemcgarry
maddy007
Thanks Mike! However won't it be preferable to use 'them' in the orignal sentence instead of 'their'. I think we need an objective pronoun in place of the possessive used here.
Dear Maddy,
I'm happy to respond. :-)
This is one structure in which formal, academic language differs from colloquial language.
"...for them being practical work clothes." = casual, colloquial, lowbrow, never acceptable on the GMAT
"...for their being practical work clothes." = sophisticated, well-spoken, highbrow, typical of academia, would appear on the GMAT.

In the second construction, "being" is a gerund, which takes on the role of a noun, and the possessive "their" acts on this gerund.
my exercising
your singing
their being


It's not that there anything definitively wrong grammatically with the first. It's just a matter of the feel of the language. The GMAT extremely conservative in its stylistic predilections. Many structures that would be acceptable in colloquial speech---omitting "that," split infinitives, ending a sentence with a preposition---never appear in a correct answer on the GMAT.

I discuss many of these sophisticated forms in articles on that blog.

Does all this make sense?
Mike :-)

Thanks a ton Mike! That was really insightful. :D
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hey can somebody please point out the difference between 'them' and 'their'? Can they be used interchangeably?
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mikemcgarry
vdadwal
Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement as for their being practical work clothes.
A. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement as for their being practical work clothes.
B. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement but for their being practical work clothes.
C. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement but for being practical work clothes
D. Denim jeans were originally worn not as a fashion statement as for them being practical work clothes.
E. Denim jeans were originally worn not as a fashion statement but as for them being practical work clothes
.
I received a pm from Archit143 about this question. The first thing I will say is --- I am not impressed with the quality of the question. Yes, isolates an important idiom, which I will discuss. But all five answers have that awkward phrase "for their being practical work clothes" --- that abomination would never appear on the real GMAT.

There seems to be a great deal of confusion about the idiom in play here. Let me distinguish two closely related idioms
1) not A but B
2) not so much A as B / not as much A as B
Both of those are 100% correct on the GMAT. The first one is a black & white distinction --- whatever we are talking about is not at all A, but rather, only B. If I say "thing is not A, but B" that implies the statement "thing is A" is totally false and the statement "thing is B" is totally true.
The other idiom connotes a difference of degrees, shades of gray ----- both statements, "thing is A" and "thing is B" are partially true, but the latter is correct more of the time than is the former. In saying "thing is not so much A as B", I am saying, thing is really both in some sense, but the relatively emphasis is on B.

If I say: "I listen to not rock music but classical music." --- this means that 100% of my listening is classical, and 0% is rock. It's very absolute, very black-and-white.

If I say: "I listen to not so much rock music as classical music." ---- this means, yes, I do listen to both, but far more frequently to classical --- it may be a 30%/70%, or a 5%/95% split --- we don't know the exact ratio --- we just know that it's mostly classical and there's some amount of rock music in there as well. There's no absolute separation.

Here, even apart from the other grammatical considerations, it would be illogical to say
Denim jeans were originally worn not as a fashion statement but as practical work clothes.
We would be saying --- when blue jeans were introduced, you could scour the Earth looking for folks who wore them, and not a single person attached any fashion significance to them. That's crazy. Of course, as practical as blue jeans were, someone somewhere must have thought of them as fashionable as well. All it takes is one hot person showing off her or his curves in a pair of jeans and BAM it's a fashion statement. The 0%/100% split just doesn't make sense in this context.

Some of the answer answer also mix and match these two idioms which you can't do
not A as B
not as much A but B
not so much A but B

Answers choices (B) & (C) & (D) & (E) fall into this category, so they are all wrong.

(E) is an absolutely nightmare. That string of words "but as for them being" will never be correct in any GMAT SC problem.

The only possible right answer is (A), although I consider even this a poor sentence that the GMAT would likely consider incorrect. I will suggest as a superior version:
Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement as practical work clothes

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)



Hi mikemcgarry

your explanations are always the best...
I really thank you for spending time and write all of them
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E and D can be taken out because ‘as’ is not to be used in negative statements.

B and C both use the wrong idiom form

Only A has the right form ‘not so much as A as B’.



A is the right answer.

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