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03 Apr 2014, 10:18
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I was just reading a magazine to help with my RC and SC and came across the following sentence.
"Whereas 80% of firms quoted on some exchanges publish green data, none on the Indonesian and Saudi exchanges does so."
Is the author's use of "does so" correct? I feel it should be "do so."
Doesn't none refer to 80% of firms i.e. "none of the firms on the Indonesian and Saudi exchanges do so."
Is it because none is referring to a singular firm within the 80%?
"Whereas 80% of firms quoted on some exchanges publish green data, none on the Indonesian and Saudi exchanges does so."
Is the author's use of "does so" correct? I feel it should be "do so."
Doesn't none refer to 80% of firms i.e. "none of the firms on the Indonesian and Saudi exchanges do so."
Is it because none is referring to a singular firm within the 80%?
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thecrimsonking
Joined: 01 Feb 2014
Last visit: 05 Mar 2017
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Concentration: General Management, Healthcare
Schools: LBS '18 INSEAD Jan '17 HBS '19
03 Apr 2014, 10:27
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interesting!
at first glance, I thought so too.....but on reading it again, I feel both are correct although i'd love it if someone could clarify.
at first glance, I thought so too.....but on reading it again, I feel both are correct although i'd love it if someone could clarify.
03 Apr 2014, 10:28
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I believe use of 'does' is ok. Yes, you are right - none is referring to - 'no single firm' from those 80% and thus, is singular and will take singular verb - does.
None does not refer to 80% of firms. Hope it helps !!
None does not refer to 80% of firms. Hope it helps !!
