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Can someone share the reasoning behind Q 2 answer?
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ozzaayy
Can someone share the reasoning behind Q 2 answer?
­
To answer Q2, we have to first see the exact definition for vertical specialization, which is found in the first sentence of the text:

Economists coined the term vertical specialization in 2001 to describe a country's use of imported intermediate parts or services as inputs in producing goods the country later exports—a common occurrence today in global trade.

Rewording the sentence, it refers to the share of the output in a sector (from which goods or services are exported) that is attributed to imports. For example, if a German bank utilizes French software to streamline client communications, this would be part of this share.

So, we need to find which one of the points describes that 8 percent of the finance and insurance sector's output is attributed to imports.
A. states the opposite, eliminate.
B. same as A, worded differently, eliminate.
D. the text does not include any information of Sweden's economy broken down by sectors, nor inferences, eliminate.
E. again, no information about this is given or inferred, eliminate. 

C. is the correct answer. Reasoning from text:

A 2011 study finds that the vertical specialization of manufacturing sectors ranges from 15 percent (electricity, gas, and water) to 90 percent (petroleum), whereas for services the range is from around 8 percent(finance and insurance)...

Pair this with our definition, and C is the only answer supported by the text, and the definition of vertical specialization, as it is given to us.


 
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Question 3


A claim made in the passage is that...

Quote:
(A) economists had traditionally been unaware of the extent to which imported inputs contributed to the manufacture of exported goods
It's not that economists were UNAWARE of this phenomenon. They talked about it (when they coined the term "vertical specialization", for example), but they "did not have data specifically addressing the import content of exports". So (A) is out.

Quote:
(B) production of services, unlike production of goods, was very unlikely to require imported inputs

The passage specifically tells us that the range of vertical specialization (use of imported inputs) for services is from around 8% to around 30%. So production of services is actually very LIKELY to require imported inputs, even if those imported inputs represent a small percentage of the final output. (B) is out.

Quote:
(C) export figures that subtract the value of imported inputs tend to exaggerate the economic contribution of exports to Sweden's economy
It's the opposite: export figures that do NOT subtract the value of imported inputs would tend to exaggerate the value of the exports. Eliminate (C).

Quote:
(D) trade statistics were being developed to report the portion of exports' value directly attributable to production in the exporting country
This is exactly what we're told at the end of the first paragraph: "Today, new trade statistics are being developed to remedy this. These statistics show the national value-added content of exports after all imported input goods and business services have been subtracted".

So (D) looks good!

Quote:
(E) official trade figures for gross exports had underreported the quantity of services exported by Sweden­
The passage doesn't say anything about underreporting the QUANTITY of services exported by Sweden. The only issue was distinguishing between the final value of those services and the value added by Sweden (i.e. final value minus value of imported inputs).

(E) is out, and (D) is our winner.
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Question 3


A claim made in the passage is that...

Quote:
(A) economists had traditionally been unaware of the extent to which imported inputs contributed to the manufacture of exported goods
It's not that economists were UNAWARE of this phenomenon. They talked about it (when they coined the term "vertical specialization", for example), but they "did not have data specifically addressing the import content of exports". So (A) is out.
KarishmaB
Quote:
(A) economists had traditionally been unaware of the extent to which imported inputs contributed to the manufacture of exported goods

All we are given is this:
Traditionally, although exports were deducted from imports in calculating gross domestic product (GDP), policymakers did not have data specifically addressing the import content of exports. Today, new trade statistics are being developed to remedy this.

All we know is that they did not have the figures. We do not know whether economists were aware of the extent to which imported units contributed to the manufacture of exported goods (a large extent or a small extent). They just did not have the actual figures. They are taking steps to acquire the right figures now.
I'd appreciate it if any of the experts can clear up this point for me. Although I got it right, my reason to eliminate (A) was solely because if in fact (A) is to be true, then I'd have to assume that all policymakers are economists. (D), however, fit my reasoning without any such assumptions.

My concern is this, the phrase "unware of the extent to which", to me, roughly translates to "did not know where in the range" does the quantity in question precisely lie. To not be aware of the extent to which the imported inputs contributed to the manufacture of exported goods, economists had to be aware that there was some %, say 10% or 20%, of imported intermediate goods contributed to the export of goods.

Now "policymakers did not have data specifically addressing the import content of exports" means that there was no data to precisely address the fraction of imports which were futrther processed and then exported.

So the crux of both the line in the passage, as well as option (A) are pretty synonymous to me, except for "policymakers" and "economists".

Am I correct in my reasoning or missing something?
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GMATNinja

Question 3


A claim made in the passage is that...

Quote:
(A) economists had traditionally been unaware of the extent to which imported inputs contributed to the manufacture of exported goods
It's not that economists were UNAWARE of this phenomenon. They talked about it (when they coined the term "vertical specialization", for example), but they "did not have data specifically addressing the import content of exports". So (A) is out.
KarishmaB
Quote:
(A) economists had traditionally been unaware of the extent to which imported inputs contributed to the manufacture of exported goods

All we are given is this:
Traditionally, although exports were deducted from imports in calculating gross domestic product (GDP), policymakers did not have data specifically addressing the import content of exports. Today, new trade statistics are being developed to remedy this.

All we know is that they did not have the figures. We do not know whether economists were aware of the extent to which imported units contributed to the manufacture of exported goods (a large extent or a small extent). They just did not have the actual figures. They are taking steps to acquire the right figures now.
I'd appreciate it if any of the experts can clear up this point for me. Although I got it right, my reason to eliminate (A) was solely because if in fact (A) is to be true, then I'd have to assume that all policymakers are economists. (D), however, fit my reasoning without any such assumptions.

My concern is this, the phrase "unware of the extent to which", to me, roughly translates to "did not know where in the range" does the quantity in question precisely lie. To not be aware of the extent to which the imported inputs contributed to the manufacture of exported goods, economists had to be aware that there was some %, say 10% or 20%, of imported intermediate goods contributed to the export of goods.

Now "policymakers did not have data specifically addressing the import content of exports" means that there was no data to precisely address the fraction of imports which were futrther processed and then exported.

So the crux of both the line in the passage, as well as option (A) are pretty synonymous to me, except for "policymakers" and "economists".

Am I correct in my reasoning or missing something?


I am not sure I would make this distinction of policymakers vs economists.

For that matter, I would hold (A) till I get to (D) and then I know that (D) is better.

The issue with (A) is that to me it seems to say that economists were not aware to what a large extent imports are a part of exports and hence they did not include them in calculations. It is like saying that they did not know what a huge impact imports had on export value and that is why they did don't deduct the import value. They just ignored it. The data the author gives shows that import values were a large part of the export value. "15 percent (electricity, gas, and water) to 90 percent (petroleum), whereas for services the range is from around 8 percent (finance and insurance) to around 30 percent (transport and storage)".

But the passage says that this adjustment was not made because the policymakers did not have these figures (so they couldn't even if they would have wanted to) and now the situation is being remedied.








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