AmanKidCACS
Would appreciate if an expert helps me out here. In a sentence , will (
,which )always modify the immediate preceding NOUN even if it is part of a PREPOSITIONAL PHRASE or WE SHOULD IGNORE PREPOSITIONAL PHRASE ALWAYS?
ex. Emily Dickinson’s letters to Susan Huntington Dickinson, which were written over a period beginning a few years before Susan’s marriage to Emily’s brother and ending shortly before Emily’s death in 1886, outnumber her letters to anyone else.
Dear
AmanKidCACS,
I'm happy to respond.
My friend, the first thing I will say is: grammar is NOT mathematics. Students often look for "always true" rules that they can apply, and grammar is seldom as black & white as math. I will also say that the GMAT SC, like all language, depends on
meaning. Meaning always trumps grammar.
So, the frustrating answer to your question is: it depends on meaning. Sometimes, the word "
which" after a comma will apply to the word it touches, in accord with the
Modifier Touch Rule. Many times, though, the target noun is separated from the modifier "
which" by a
vital noun modifier, something absolutely necessary for determining the identity of the noun.
For example, in the GMAT SC sentence you cited, the phrase "
Emily Dickinson’s letters" is ambiguous--do we mean
all the letters that the great
Spinster of Amherst wrote? Do we mean only
some of her letters? The modifier that follows, "
to Susan Huntington Dickinson," is a vital noun modifier because it makes crystal clear exactly which letters we mean. Like all vital noun modifiers, this is essential to the meaning, so it is allowed to come between the target noun "
letters" and the "
which" modifier. This is one of the valid exceptions to the Modifier Touch Rule.
So, no, we can always say that the "
which" applies to the noun that it touches, and we can always say that it doesn't. What we always have to do is pay attention to
meaning.
Does all this make sense?
Mike