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Re: For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an [#permalink]
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IMO B,,
the underlined portion should modify auden and should be a subordinate clause...
B does that well
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Re: For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an [#permalink]
+B

For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an inveterate literary gossip.

(A) For all his professed disdain of such activities, - Disdain of is incorrect , it has to be disdain for

(B) Having always professed disdain for such activities, - Having professed is modifying Auden correctly and is keeping the meaning of the sentence intact ( the sarcastic contrast of the sentence is well kept)

(C) All such activities were, he professed, disdained, and - this and is like an addition , Auden professed gossiping was disdained ( passive ) and he was a gossip himself . the feel of the sentence is lost here.

(D) Professing that all such activities were disdained, - This would mean that act of professing and gossiping were happening at the same time ( in one sentence he was disdaining gossiping and in the other he was gossiping - how strange)

(E) In spite of professions of disdaining all such activities, - This is taking the sentence to a different world altogether , meaning wise, to a very unorganised world at that .


Please correct me if i am wrong
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Re: For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an [#permalink]
Chose A originally, then changed to B. Forgot A had wrong idiom. Disdain for not of...

Thankfully, this isn’t the official GMAT!

Posted from my mobile device
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Re: For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an [#permalink]
Actually, I would go with A on this one.

In my opinion, it is the only answer choice that gets the meaning right.

Although Auden always professed disdain for such activities, he was an inveterate literary gossip nonetheless.

In case my answer choice is wrong, please let me know where I went off the path.

Regards,
Chris
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Re: For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an [#permalink]
I’m gonna go with E even though “of professions of disdaining” is bit awkward


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Re: For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an [#permalink]
Prateekj05 wrote:
generis wrote:

Project SC Butler: Day 25 Sentence Correction (SC1)


For SC butler Questions Click Here


For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an inveterate literary gossip.

(A) For all his professed disdain of such activities,

(B) Having always professed disdain for such activities,

(C) All such activities were, he professed, disdained, and

(D) Professing that all such activities were disdained,

(E) In spite of professions of disdaining all such activities,

NOTE: IN YOUR ANSWER, PLEASE STATE THE MEANING OF THE QUESTION IN YOUR OWN WORDS.


The best or excellent answers get kudos, which will be awarded after the answer is revealed.


Meaning:

The author is saying that despite Auden's contempt for gossip, he himself was a habitual literary gossiper.

This is a tricky one. Here "For all" is used in place of "despite". So from the options, a word that shows contrast would be a right fit to start the sentence. For eg. for all his talent,he lost the match under pressure.

In (B), "Having" does not show the contrast between the two clauses.

In (C), "And" implies a continuation of an idea, not a contrast. Plus, this is just way too wordy and convoluted.

In (D), the sentence feels incomplete. "Disdained" by whom? This choice changes the sentence's meaning by not explaining that it was Auden who disdained the activities.

In (E), "In spite of" does show the necessary contrast, but "professions of disdaining" is awkward.

A seems to be the most correct answer out of the lot. Although "disdain of" is not used in written english, the meaning of the sentence is the key here to select the answer. The gerund form doesn't tell us about the contrast. If option (B) were to say "Despite having always professed disdain for such activities," then it would have been the correct choice.

Please correct me if I'm wrong :)


Edit: Here's a list of important prepositions. Although this is for TOEFL (90% of prepositions present on the TOEFL are in this list), this will be very helpful for GMAT as well. Won't take much of your time :)


The following content is from the document attached by Prateekj05.
Generally, prepositions are followed by a noun. But 6 of them(After, As, Before, For, Since, Until) can be followed either by a noun or by a sentence.

After lunch, I felt sleepy. - After is a preposition and is therefore followed by only one noun, lunch (no verb here!!)
After I worked (for) twelve hours, I felt tired. - After is a subordinating conjunction and is followed by a sentence, I worked (for) twelve hours. -- Also, in this sentence, the for that follows worked is necessary?

I worked until midnight. -Here, until is a preposition and is followed by a noun, midnight. No verbs, please!!!
I worked until I felt tired.- In this sentence, until is a subordinating conjunction and is followed by a sentence, I felt tired.

Even for is mentioned as a subordinating conjunction in this document, but isn't FOR a coordinating conjunction(FANBOYS) - when used to give a reason?


AjiteshArun, GMATNinja , MagooshExpert , daagh , generis - please enlighten
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Re: For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an [#permalink]
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skywalker

Please visit the following link in the freedictionary.com and see the relevant part of usage notes.

https://www.thefreedictionary.com/for

Usage Note: For has been used as a conjunction meaning "because, since" for over1,000 years. It is familiar in many famous quotations, from the New Testament beatitudes (Blessed are the meek: for they shall inherit the earth, Matthew 5:05) to Shakespeare's sonnets (For thy sweet love remembered such wealth brings / That then I scorn to change my state with kings). Today this use of for is rare in speech and informal writing, and it often lends a literary tone or note of formality. • Like the word so, for can be viewed as either a subordinating or a coordinating conjunction, and it has been treated variously as such. It has the meaning of a subordinating conjunction since it clearly subordinates the clause that follows it to the previous clause or sentence. But like a coordinating conjunction, for has a fixed position in the sentence, and its clause cannot be transposed to precede the superordinate clause containing the main idea. It is ungrammatical in present-day English to say For they shall inherit the earth: blessed are the meek. Perhaps because of this ambiguity in function, for is treated variously with regard to punctuation. Sometimes it begins a dependent clause and follows a comma, and sometimes it begins an independent clause (as if it were a conjunctive adverb like moreover) and follows a semicolon or period (when it is capitalized as the first word of a new sentence). All treatments are acceptable in standard usage. The difference is really one of emphasis: starting a new sentence with for tends to call more attention to the thought that it introduces.
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Re: For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an [#permalink]
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GMATNinja generis

Does "Having" at the beginning always convey a contrast meaning?

Let's say I have the sentence "Having had studied carefully for the exam, I scored the highest in the class". If this sentence is correct, then I dont have any contrast meaning needed in this sentence. It is more like causal relationship.

Appreciate your input.
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duybachhpvn wrote:
GMATNinja generis

Does "Having" at the beginning always convey a contrast meaning?

Let's say I have the sentence "Having had studied carefully for the exam, I scored the highest in the class". If this sentence is correct, then I dont have any contrast meaning needed in this sentence. It is more like causal relationship.

Appreciate your input.

Hi duybachhpvn
no, "having" at the beginning (or anywhere) does not have to convey a contrast.
In fact, having + past participle usually implies cause→consequence and thus almost always suggests continuity, not contrast.

(Where is this myth coming from? Literally, what source? I think this is the third
time I have seen someone mention that "having" must convey contrast.
You did well to reject the myth. :) +1)

You came up with a very good example yourself (no contrast):
Having studied carefully for the exam, I scored the highest in the class.

• Having + past participle (verbED)

1) almost always acts as an adjective to modify the subject or a noun, and

2) is called a "perfect participle," because the action has been completed or "perfected"

3) often implies cause and effect (implies continuity, not contrast).
If coupled with a contrast word or phrase, having + verbED can help to convey contrast, but the "having. . ." phrase does not do that work. The contrast word does so.

Examples of continuity (we get what we expect)
-- Having exhausted their supplies, the campers had to end their trip early.
-- Having witnessed a crime, Mrs. Brown called the police.

Examples of contrast (we get surprised, but that fact has nothing to do with "having . . ."
and everything to do with the contrast word)

-- Having heard the doctor advise more physical therapy, the hurt quarterback insisted on playing the next game anyway.
-- Having slept too few hours to concentrate well, the surgeon in training nonetheless scrubbed in.

Takeaway: HAVING + past participle is not inherently a contrast word. In fact, the phrasing usually implies cause and effect and thus leans towards continuity.

GMATNinja 's insights are always welcome . . .
especially the ones about nuclear German pastries. Or any other food except calamari.
But I don't think he's talked about calamari. :grin:


**In this question's Option (B), "having" is wrong because it is not a contrast word.
The sentence itself requires a contrast word.
You can read my example about olive-green ties in my official explanation, in this post.
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generis wrote:
GMATNinja 's insights are always welcome . . .
especially the ones about nuclear German pastries. Or any other food except calamari.
But I don't think he's talked about calamari. :grin:

What, I'm not allowed to discuss calamari?!? :(

It's funny you should mention it -- my plan for today is to eat calamari for one of my three lunches. (In Galicia right now, where calamari is kind of a thing.) No nuclear German pastries lately, but I did have some good German rye bread with breakfast. I'd still argue that German bakeries are incredibly underrated. So are Chilean bakeries -- one of the quiet treasures of South America.

generis, if you're in NYC and a fan of calamari, there's a Croatian social club in Astoria that makes a spectacular grilled calamari. Also a Sardinian place near Columbia that has a great touch with sea critters...

Wait... was there a question about grammar? I think you have that part covered better than I would, generis. :)
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Re: For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an [#permalink]
generis wrote:
generis wrote:

Project SC Butler: Day 25 Sentence Correction (SC1)



For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an inveterate literary gossip.

(A) For all his professed disdain of such activities,
(B) Having always professed disdain for such activities,
(C) All such activities were, he professed, disdained, and
(D) Professing that all such activities were disdained,
(E) In spite of professions of disdaining all such activities,

OFFICIAL EXPLANATION
I make comments in blue typeface.
The clarity of official explanations varies. This OE is a little confusing.

• Choice A is the best answer and is idiomatically phrased
Why? Is "disdain of" idiomatic? Or "For all"?

• Choice B fails to express the sense that Auden indulged in literary gossip [that Auden participated in literary gossip, that Auden DID gossip]
despite [his] professing disdain for it.
Why does B fail to express this sense? See my analysis below.

• Choices C, D, and E do not establish precisely that Auden was the one professing disdain for literary gossip.
[Okay, so if "disdain of" is idiomatic, why does this author use "disdain for"?]

• The and in C makes the disembodied professions of disdain and the indulgence in gossip seem like wholly separate matters
How does this writer glean from the actual words in answer C that "such activities" are "professions of disdain"?

•E is especially awkward
Why? More awkward than C? Which is more awkward, a sentence that makes no sense, or a sentence
that uses a lot of words but makes sense?


COMMENTS

First, NCRanjan , a belated welcome to GMAT Club!

Second, this question is hard.
If you have been reading newspapers and journals, ahem,
then you will have seen disdain for much more often than disdain of.
That pattern was true when this question was written.

So this question forces you to choose between what most people believe is idiomatic,
and meaning.

Always choose meaning.

This question is similar to a very good MGMAT question about acai berries, here.
That question, in turn, was based on an official question about Elizabeth Barrett Browning. (linked in the post)

In the correct answer to the Browning question, GMAC violated what people thought was a well-established pronoun rule sometimes called "possessive poison."

Choosing the option closest to logical meaning in both the Browning and acai berry questions is only way to get the correct answer.

We have a similar issue.
We must choose the most logical meaning even though disdain of seems weird.

I have seen "disdain of" about ten times.
I have seen "disdain for" hundreds of times.
I have seen disdain without any preposition hundreds of times.
(Because she disdained insincerity, she noticed that her colleague's actions contradicted his seemingly humble words.)
-- disdain of is not wrong, but it is rare

We must ignore what we know about idioms in favor of meaning.

I ask people to write the meaning of the sentence in their own words because 40 percent of SC
questions turn on meaning ("logical predication").
This question cannot be answered correctly without a solid understanding that the sentence
intends to convey a contradiction (contrast, irony).

Meaning?
Prateekj05 wrote:
"[D]espite Auden's contempt for gossip, he himself was a habitual literary gossiper."
Excellent.
Arro44 (Chris) wrote:
"Although Auden always professed disdain for such activities, he was an inveterate literary gossip nonetheless."
Excellent.
Both authors are wisely stubborn about meaning.

Here is meaning in the plainest English I can muster:
Although Auden often announced that he did not like gossiping, he gossiped constantly. He was a hypocrite.

Now, the options.

• Option A
uses "for" in the sense of "despite," as Prateekj05 notes. (Thanks for attaching the download! Very thoughtful. :-)).

For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an inveterate literary gossip.
Option A means: despite having spoken disdainfully about literary gossip, Auden himself was an incurable literary gossip.
Bingo.

• Option B
Having always professed disdain for such activities, Auden was an inveterate literary gossip.

If we had not seen option A, we would read this sentence in (B) and think, "Huh?" Watch:
Having announced frequently that he despised the color olive green, he wore an olive green tie every day.

After we read the first part of that sentence, we expect something such as "he absolutely refused to wear olive green-colored ties."

But we get the opposite. He wears an olive-green tie every day!
In order to make sense, that sentence would need to state:
Having announced frequently that he despised the color olive green, nonetheless he wore an olive green tie every day.

Our option (B) does not have a contrast word such as "nonetheless" or "hypocritically" in the non-underlined portion of the sentence.

As such, we have no idea in B what meaning is intended.

"Having always" sets us up to expect that Auden was not a gossip.
So which of the two parts of option B's sentence is accurate? We don't know.

This option is not logical.
GMAC hopes we will mentally insert a contrast word into this option, in part because we have read (A).
Illogically connected sentences do not convey contradiction in a way that makes sense.
They convey confusion. Option B at best is confusing.

• Option C says
All such activities were, he professed, disdained, and Auden was an inveterate literary gossip.

The author of the OE assumes that "such activities" refers to "professions of disdain" for "literary gossip,"
but this sentence says no such thing.

Option C, rewritten: Auden professed that he disdained "all such activities," and Auden was an inveterate literary gossip.
This horribly constructed sentence does not convey intended meaning; "such activities" could be anything, and there is no contrast word
to establish a clear linkage to Auden's hypocrisy.

• Option D,
while not horribly constructed, has the same errors as C. "Such activities" could be anything, and there is no contrast word.

• Option E
is poorly constructed, and it, too, does not have a word that signals contradiction.
"Such activities," as in (C), could be anything.

Option A is correct.

dave13 stepped in to help, as I have see some of you begin to do ( :thumbup: ), and provided a much-needed laugh (thank you!).

Prateekj05 wrote the best answer.
He and Arro44 rightly chose to insist that meaning must be clear and as intended.

That decision is not an easy one to make.
Takeaway: if only one option clearly conveys logical meaning,
even if that option seems weird or odd, choose that one.

I appreciate all the posters. This question is hard.



Hi generis
Can you please provide me with a brief idea as to when is the usage of "having" considered incorrect, I understand that in this question - option B is incorrect because there is no contrast presented, however in other situation, when will we consider the usage of "having" as correct / incorrect
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For all his professed disdain of such activities, Auden was an [#permalink]
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Dear Rickooreo
"having" usually presents Cause and Effect relationships.
- Having consummated the set of drills with 100% accuracy, Dave is ready to bit the GMAT.

in case of B, the relationship is not clear: he was against ... and he did so anyway.

I chose B option even thought I knew that the meaning is awkward.
The reason is I accustom to see "for" in lieu of "because of", rather than as a substitute for "in spite of".
More info is here: https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/for
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