enigma123
Given a series of n consecutive positive integers, where n > 1, is the average value of this series an integer divisible by 3?
(1) n is odd
(2) The sum of the first number of the series and (n – 1) / 2 is an integer divisible by 3
For me the answer is D. can someone please let me know if you think its not correct? Unfortunately, I don't have an OA. This is how I solved it. Also, please let me know if there is any shortcut or any concept that you guys can see straight after reading the questions.
Statement 1 --> n is ODD. When there are ODD terms in the consecutive series the average will be an integer that will never be divisible by 3. Hence NO and therefore this statement is sufficient.
Statement 2 --> Let's say n=7 and 1st term = 3. So 3+(7-1/2) = 6. 6+3 = 9 which is divisible by 3. Average value will be 6 which is divisible by 3.
Lets say n = 13. Average value will be 9 which is divisible by 3. Therefore this statement is also sufficient to answer the question.
B.
(1) n is odd
1,2,3 ; Ans = No.
2,3,4 ; Ans = Yes.
So insufficient.
(2) The sum of the first number of the series and (n – 1) / 2 is an integer divisible by 3
Let the series be a,a+1,a+2,...,a+(n-1)
acc to FS2 [a + (n-1)/2] mod 3 = 0
the avg of series is: na + ((n-1)(n)/2) = [n (a + (n-1)/2)]
since [a + (n-1)/2] mod 3 = 0
=> n*[a + (n-1)/2] is also div by 3.
hence, the avg is div by 3.
sufficient.