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Re: GMAT CLUB OLYMPICS: An n-sided fair die has sides labeled with the num [#permalink]
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According to the question, we need to find whether 1/n > 2/31?

Statement 1:
n*(n-1)/(n*n) > 5/6
=> n > 6
Here n could be 7 where the probability of getting an 8 is 0
n could also be 8 or above where the probability cannot be calculated unless we know the value of n.
Hence insufficient.

Statement 2:
1/n > 1/8
=> n < 8
Here since n < 8, the probability of getting an 8 is 0 which is < 2/31.
Hence we get the answer as no.
Option 2 is sufficient hence answer is B.
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Re: GMAT CLUB OLYMPICS: An n-sided fair die has sides labeled with the num [#permalink]
Bunuel wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
An n-sided fair die has sides labeled with the numbers 1 through n, inclusive, where n > 3. If the die is rolled once, is the probability of rolling a "8" greater than 2/31 ?

(1) If the die is rolled twice, the probability that the numbers obtained are different is greater than 5/6.

(1) If the die is rolled twice, the probability that the numbers obtained are equal is greater than 1/8.



 


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Official Solution:


An \(n\)-sided fair die has sides labeled with the numbers 1 through \(n\), inclusive, where \(n > 3\). If the die is rolled once, is the probability of rolling a "8" greater than \(\frac{2}{31}\) ?

The probability of rolling a "8" when rolling an \(n\)-sided die is \(\frac{1}{n}\), provided \(n\) is greater than or equal to 8 (if \(n < 8\), then the probability of rolling a "8" will be 0). So, the question asks whether \(\frac{1}{n} > \frac{2}{31}\), (which translates into \(n < 15.5\)) AND \(n > 7\). Thus the question became: is \(7 < n < 15.5\)

(1) If the die is rolled twice, the probability that the numbers obtained are different is greater than \(\frac{5}{6}\).

\(P(two \ different \ numbers) = 1 - P(two \ same \ numbers)=1-1*\frac{1}{n}\). So, we are told that \(1-\frac{1}{n} > \frac{5}{6}\):

\(1-\frac{1}{n} > \frac{5}{6}\);

\(\frac{1}{6} > \frac{1}{n} \);

\(n>6\) (since \(n\) is positive).

If \(n=7\), then the probability of rolling a "8" is 0, so less than \(\frac{2}{31}\).

If \(8 \leq n \leq 15\), then the probability of rolling a "8" will be more than \(\frac{2}{31}\).

And if \(n > 15\), then the probability of rolling a "8" will be less than \(\frac{2}{31}\).

Not sufficient.

(2) If the die is rolled twice, the probability that the numbers obtained are equal is greater than \(\frac{1}{8}\).

\(P(two \ equal \ numbers)=n*\frac{1}{n}*\frac{1}{n}=\frac{1}{n} > \frac{1}{8}\). This leads to \(n < 8\). Therefore, the probability of rolling a "8" is 0. Sufficient.


Answer: B


Could you please explain the Statement-2 of this question?
I am unable to get the clarity on this (n*1/n*1/n)?
The probability of getting a number from "n" no.s is (1/n). So , the probability of getting the same number twice is (1/n^2).So in the formula from where this extra "n" is arriving?

Thank you in advance

[b]Posted from my mobile device
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Re: GMAT CLUB OLYMPICS: An n-sided fair die has sides labeled with the num [#permalink]
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Dipsy06 wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
An n-sided fair die has sides labeled with the numbers 1 through n, inclusive, where n > 3. If the die is rolled once, is the probability of rolling a "8" greater than 2/31 ?

(1) If the die is rolled twice, the probability that the numbers obtained are different is greater than 5/6.

(1) If the die is rolled twice, the probability that the numbers obtained are equal is greater than 1/8.



 


This question was provided by GMAT Club
for the GMAT Club Olympics Competition

Win over $40,000 in prizes such as Courses, Tests, Private Tutoring, and more

 



Official Solution:


An \(n\)-sided fair die has sides labeled with the numbers 1 through \(n\), inclusive, where \(n > 3\). If the die is rolled once, is the probability of rolling a "8" greater than \(\frac{2}{31}\) ?

The probability of rolling a "8" when rolling an \(n\)-sided die is \(\frac{1}{n}\), provided \(n\) is greater than or equal to 8 (if \(n < 8\), then the probability of rolling a "8" will be 0). So, the question asks whether \(\frac{1}{n} > \frac{2}{31}\), (which translates into \(n < 15.5\)) AND \(n > 7\). Thus the question became: is \(7 < n < 15.5\)

(1) If the die is rolled twice, the probability that the numbers obtained are different is greater than \(\frac{5}{6}\).

\(P(two \ different \ numbers) = 1 - P(two \ same \ numbers)=1-1*\frac{1}{n}\). So, we are told that \(1-\frac{1}{n} > \frac{5}{6}\):

\(1-\frac{1}{n} > \frac{5}{6}\);

\(\frac{1}{6} > \frac{1}{n} \);

\(n>6\) (since \(n\) is positive).

If \(n=7\), then the probability of rolling a "8" is 0, so less than \(\frac{2}{31}\).

If \(8 \leq n \leq 15\), then the probability of rolling a "8" will be more than \(\frac{2}{31}\).

And if \(n > 15\), then the probability of rolling a "8" will be less than \(\frac{2}{31}\).

Not sufficient.

(2) If the die is rolled twice, the probability that the numbers obtained are equal is greater than \(\frac{1}{8}\).

\(P(two \ equal \ numbers)=n*\frac{1}{n}*\frac{1}{n}=\frac{1}{n} > \frac{1}{8}\). This leads to \(n < 8\). Therefore, the probability of rolling a "8" is 0. Sufficient.


Answer: B


Could you please explain the Statement-2 of this question?
I am unable to get the clarity on this (n*1/n*1/n)?
The probability of getting a number from "n" no.s is (1/n). So , the probability of getting the same number twice is (1/n^2).So in the formula from where this extra "n" is arriving?

Thank you in advance

[b]Posted from my mobile device


When rolled twice, what is the probability that the numbers obtained are equal to 1? It's 1/n*1/n, right?
When rolled twice, what is the probability that the numbers obtained are equal to 2? It's 1/n*1/n, again.
When rolled twice, what is the probability that the numbers obtained are equal to 3? It's 1/n*1/n, again.
...
When rolled twice, what is the probability that the numbers obtained are equal to n? It's 1/n*1/n, again.

So, when rolled twice, what is the probability that the numbers obtained are equal ? It's the sum of the above: 1/n*1/n, n times, which is n*1/n*1/n.

Hope it's clear.
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Re: GMAT CLUB OLYMPICS: An n-sided fair die has sides labeled with the num [#permalink]
Came Across this beautiful questions, kudos Bunuel

1) Given that the probability of rolling two separate numbers is greater than 5/6, we can construct the following equation:

\(1*\frac{(n-1)}{n}>\frac{5}{6}\) where n is the number of sides.
\(6n-6>5n\) We are able to multiply because n>3>0
\(n>6\)
This means we have more than 6 numbers on our dice.
If n=7, then p(8)=0, as 8 is not an option. But if n=8, p(8)=1/8 which is greater than 2/31.
NS.

2) Given this we can construct:
\(1*\frac{1}{n}>\frac{1}{8}\) where n is the number of sides.
\(n<8\)
Since n has less than 8 sides, p(8) will be 0 for all the cases, which is less than 2/31. Suff.

B
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Re: GMAT CLUB OLYMPICS: An n-sided fair die has sides labeled with the num [#permalink]
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