Shivikaa
In Q3, I didn't understand why A is the answer ?
It states that ' The dominant view in recent decades has been that family hunting territories, like other forms of private landownership, were not found among Algonquians'
What I understood from this statement is Algonquians didn't have private landownership territories.
Please suggest where did I go wrong ?
Thanks in advance.
We need to select an answer choice that would be believed by proponents of BOTH views. Let's start by looking at those two views:
1) Family hunting territories (FHTs), a
form of private landownership, were
not found among Algonquians before contact with Europeans. According to this view, FHTs "were the result of changes in Algonquian society brought about by the European-Algonquian fur trade, in combination with other factors such as ecological changes and consequent shifts in wildlife harvesting patterns."
2) "Algonquian family hunting territories
predate contact with Europeans and are forms of private landownership by individuals and families."
According to one view, FHTs came about AFTER contact with Europeans. According to the other view, FHTs PREDATE contact with Europeans. Choice (C) cannot be correct because only the second view says that FHTs PREDATE European contact. As for choice (D), proponents of both views might agree that FHTs are a
form of private land ownership, but only the first view says that Algonquian FHTs resulted from European contact.
Choice (A), on the other hand, is consistent with both views. Even though Algonquians did not HAVE FHTs prior to European contact, proponents of the first view would still agree that FHTs are a
form of private landownership. In other words, proponents of the first view would say that FHTs are a FORM of private landownership and that Algonquians did not have this form of private landownership prior to European contact.
I hope that helps!